JEWISH BITTER WATERS

Ben Masada

New member
Since Israel did not literally die your interpretation of Isaiah's prophecy is totally symbolic at best. But Jesus literally died which I don't think you have the Spirit to understand or comprehend.

Too bad.

Nice try Jamie! First, I have never said here that Israel would die. It didn't. It was exiled forever to Assyria and from there throughout the earth. As I said before, I repeat: Messiah ben Yoseph did not die physically. Some of the People but not the People in general. The difference with Messiah ben David is that they remained as a People before the Lord forever in Jerusalem. (I Kings 11:36; Jer. 31:35-37) The Messiah in both cases is not based on the individual but on the People. Baruch HaShem I do have the Spirit of understand and I do comprehend what I said.
 

Ben Masada

New member
1 - Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

2 - Act 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

1 - Whom do you want to believe, Jesus or Paul? Before Paul said "to the Jews FIRST," Jesus had said, to the Jews ONLY." if you read Mat. 15:24.

2 - That's one of Luke's lies. Peter was a Jew, not a Christian, and he knew who had crucified Jesus; the Romans, not the Jews. Therefore, as a Jew, he could not slander the Jews; especially, so openly.
 

RBBI

New member
The main commandment of the Lord unto Moses was to take God's People to the Promised Land of Canaan. After 430 years of life in Mitzraim the daily presence of sacrifices had caused the Israelites to get used to a religion with sacrifices witnessed daily among the Egyptians. They wanted to be like the other nations.

When Moses arrived in Egypt with the divine mission to fulfill that commandment, Moses had never mention the form of religion would be the religion of Israel. When Moses realized how hard would be to freed the Israelites with a religion without sacrifices, he soon realized that it would not work. The Israelites who had never had a nation of their own would not accept any different method. They wanted to be like all the other nations.

It was then that Moses used of Pichuach Nephesh in order to easy things up. Although the Lord had never commanded that sacrifices of animals be part of the religion of Israel, as we have from Jeremiah 7:22, He allowed things for a time which indeed proved catastrophic but, He allowed for the sake of Moses and the People. Pichuach Nephesh was an allowance to wave a commandment when another more important was needed to replaced it.

I personally can't see Moses having that much leeway to do what he thought was best. When HaShem told him to make it according to the pattern shown him on the mount, it's pretty clear that the Tabernacle was designed for sacrifices. My two cents.....Peace
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
I personally can't see Moses having that much leeway to do what he thought was best. When HaShem told him to make it according to the pattern shown him on the mount, it's pretty clear that the Tabernacle was designed for sacrifices. My two cents.....Peace

tab-brazen-altar.jpg


Looks like the brazen altar to me. :)
 

Ben Masada

New member
I personally can't see Moses having that much leeway to do what he thought was best. When HaShem told him to make it according to the pattern shown him on the mount, it's pretty clear that the Tabernacle was designed for sacrifices. My two cents.....Peace

Moses had a much closer relation with HaShem than any other human being on earth. The only time Moses was denied a request made to Yahweh was when he asked to see the glory of HaShem aka see Him face-to-face and Yahweh said that no one could see Him face-to-Face and live. (Exo. 33:29)
 

Daniel1769

New member
The Lord has no pleasure in sacrifices, besides the fact that He never commanded that sacrifices became part in the religion of Israel. (Jer. 7:22) He adopted that addition because of the Man Moses was; the most important Prophet in the History of
Israel. Moses, used of pichuach nephesh to add the sacrifices and the Lord let it remain as it did. Then, it was because of the sacrifices that Israel degenerated into all forms of idolatry.

You're still not answering the question. You claim Jews need the Temple. If God doesn't let you have the Temple, why do you think he is pleased with you?

He believeth the Son hath life. But he that believeth not the Son hath not life, but the wrath of God abideth on him.
 

Town Heretic

Out of Order
Hall of Fame
Yoḥanon-benYaʿăqov;4580936 said:
Do you have a learning deficiency or something? Perhaps it is that you are incapable of understanding that D’variym is the same book of the Bible that you chr-stians call Deuteronomy in your pagan Greek language. Read chapter 12 in its entirety; in fact read the entire book in its entirety it might just do you some good.

Chapter 12 in particular explains that once the children of Yis’raél cross the Yar’dén, or Jordan as you call it, and enter the promised land all sacrifices and offerings can only take place at the location He chooses to place His Name and Make His dwelling. They can no longer be performed wherever they are at. The Mish’kan was only temporary while they were in the wilderness.

D’variym 12:5 – “But only to the place which HaShem your God chooses from among all of your tribes to set His Name in that place; shall you inquire after His dwelling and come to that place.”

D’variym 12:6 – “And there you will bring your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, and the contributions of your hands, and your vows and donations, and the firstborn of your cattle and your sheep.”

D’variym 12:7 – “And there you shall eat before HaShem your God, and you shall rejoice in all that you do, you and your households, as HaShem your God has blessed you.”

D’variym 12:8 – “You shall not do all the things as we do here today, everyone doing what he sees as right.”

D’variym 12:9 – “For you have not yet come to the resting place or to the inheritance which HaShem your God is giving you.”

Seems pretty simple and straight forward to me, I don’t know where you’re getting lost. But as I said before, read the entire book. Every single time God speaks of the place He chooses to place His Name and His dwelling, He is referring to the Temple.

I don’t know how you are incapable of understanding something as elementarily simple as this; perhaps you are blinded by your chr-stian goggles.
Interesting. One question though, what's with the "chr-stian" business? It's a proper noun and it isn't hard to spell. Is there a religious proscription in play or are you just being difficult? I ask because some apostates and anti-theists lose their ability to recognized a proper noun when it relates to Christ and Christianity. With them it's essentially a line of demarcation where their reason and maturation run into and are thwarted by the nature of their bias, but I thought it might be something else at work here. Is it?
 
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