KingdomRose
New member
I don't believe that the JW who came to your door told you he could read Greek. I would assume that he was trying to tell you the same thing I'm trying to tell you. No wonder he was "angry"---I would sooner say he was frustrated. I also don't believe that he called you names. We are admonished over and over to never do that.Incorrect. There is no 'a.' Did you know there is a Greek word for 'a' John could have used? He didn't. Sorry, somebody is lying to you. Think today. Quit running to people who will gladly lie to you. They lie all the time. Why? :idunno: The guy that came to my door that said he could read Greek, and was the JW representative over three states, "lied." He couldn't read a lick. He left my house very angry because of it. Called me a few names because of it. Why? Simply because I showed his disciple that he couldn't read a lick of Greek? :idunno:
Therefore, I would like to call you an idiot but I will refrain from doing so. I KNOW that there are no indefinite articles in Greek. So, according to the rules of translating Greek into English, if there is no article in front of a word that means that it is one of many. "Snoopy is a dog" is the English way of saying that fact. A Greek would write in Greek, "Snoopy is dog." No indefinite article. That way they know and understand that Snoopy is one of many. If they wanted to say that Snoopy was the ONLY dog they would use a definite article with "dog." It would literally be, "Snoopy is the dog."
So in John 1:1 we have, "in the beginning was the word and the word was with the god, and the word was god." A Greek reading this would know that "the word was god" doesn't have the definite article, so it is one of many. To adhere to the rules for translating Greek to English, translators, as well as the Greek speaking person, would include the indefinite article "a" so that it makes sense in English.
You really don't understand the protocol for translating Greek into proper English.