Jesus is God

Jesus is God


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God's Truth

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For the reader.

I do not hate anyone.

GT uses that as a defence for her false doctrine, by lying about other people.

LA

You are a hateful false judge and you cannot deceive so easily.

Anyone can read what you wrote.

Here is the post where you call me blind and cannot discern the truth.

Perhaps you are just blind and can not discern it.

But then you judge others by your personal beliefs as so many do.

LA
 

Daley

New member
Greek Text more Reliable than Aramaic

Greek Text more Reliable than Aramaic

ARAMAIC ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT

YOCHANAN (JOHN)
Chapter 1
1. In the beginning was the Miltha. And that Miltha was with Elohim. And Elohim was that Miltha.
2. This was with Elohim in the beginning.
3. Everything existed through his hands……….

Miltha refers to the “Manifestation” of the Ruach haKodesh within Mashiyach. The physical body of Mashiyach is not the Word of YHWH, but his words and actions demonstrate the Will and Word of YHWH, which upholds observance of Torah.

Miltha is the spiritual son of Elohim (God).
Mashiyach refers to Messiah Y’shua (Jesus Christ)
YHWH is the name of the most high God.
Ruach haKodesh is the Holy Spirit.
Elohim is God or a god, it can refer to more than the creator.

Actually, Jesus was bilingual, he could speak Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, and Latin. When a Roman centurion spoke to Jesus, in which language to you think he spoke in? Why are all the oldest NT Gospels written in Greek? We have over 5, 300 Greek manuscripts of the NT. Under the influence of Alexander the Great and his succeeding generals, the Jews were hellenized, forced into Greek culture in part, as well as their language. So much so that most of the burial tombs among the Jews are inscribed in Greek.

"In the next article in the same issue of Biblical Archaeological Review, the author, Pieter W. Van Der Horst, points out that no less than 1,600 Jewish epitaphs -- funerary inscriptions -- are extant from ancient Palestine dating from 300 B.C. to 500 A.D. The geographical spread of these inscriptions reveal that Jews were living all over the world at that time, especially the Roman period. In other words, when Jesus' brother James said in Acts 15, "Moses has been preached in every city for generations past and is read in the synagogues on every sabbath" (v.21), he was simply stating the truth. Peter, in his first sermon, enumerates a list of the countries from which Jews came to worship on that first Pentecost of the newly formed Christian Church (Acts 2:9-11).

Van Der Horst goes on:

"One of the most surprising facts about these funerary inscriptions is that most of them are IN GREEK -- approximately 70 percent; about 12 percent are in Latin; and only 18 percent are in Hebrew or Aramaic.

"These figures are even more instructive if we break them down between Palestine and the Diaspora. Naturally in Palestine we would expect more Hebrew and Aramaic and less Greek. This is true, but not to any great extent. Even in Palestine approximately TWO-THIRDS of these inscriptions are in GREEK.

"APPARENTLY FOR A GREAT PART OF THE JEWISH POPULATION THE DAILY LANGUAGE WAS GREEK, EVEN IN PALESTINE. This is impressive testimony to the impact of Hellenistic culture on Jews in their mother country, to say nothing of the Diaspora.

"In Jerusalem itself about 40 PERCENT of the Jewish inscriptions from the first century period (before 70 C.E.) ARE IN GREEK. We may assume that most Jewish Jerusalemites who saw the inscriptions in situ were able to read them" ("Jewish Funerary Inscriptions -- Most Are in Greek," Pieter W. Van Der Horst, BAR, Sept.-Oct.1992, p.48)." http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm

"Greek in Ancient Palestinian Judaism
But it also seems that Greek was known to ancient Jews. The influence of Greek culture in the first century is clear from the fact that the high priest in 37 A.D. had a strikingly Greek name--Theophilus. It is striking to me that he did not feel the need to change his name to a Semitic one--there was apparently no problem with this high priest being called Theophilus (Ant. 18.123).

Many sources could be cited here. Stanley Porter writes,

". . . Jesus would probably be best described as productively multilingual in Greek and Aramaic, and possibly Hebrew, though Aramaic would have been his first language and Greek and Hebrew being second or acquired languages. . . He may also have been passively multilingual in Latin, although if he had any knowledge of Latin at all it is likely that it was confined to recognition of a few common words. This depiction reflects the linguistic realities of the Mediterranean world of Roman times, including that of the eastern Mediterranean, and is supported by widespread and significant literary, epigraphic, and other evidence. As a result of the conquests of Alexander III ('the Great'), and the rule of the Hellenistic kings (the Diadochi and their successors), the Greco-Roman world was one in which Greek became the language of trade, commerce and communication among the now joined (if not always united) people groups. In other words, Greek was the lingua franca for the eastern Mediterranean world, displacing Aramaic. . . .

The arguments for the use of Greek in Palestine are based upon the role of Greek as the lingua franca of the Roman empire, the specific Hellenized linguistic and cultural character of lower Galilee surrounded by the cities of the Decapolis, and the linguistic fact that the New Testament has been transmitted in Greek from its earliest documents. There is also a range of incriptional evidence (e.g., Jewish funerary inscriptions), numerous Greek papyri, and significant literary evidence, including Jewish books being written in or translated into Greek in Palestine. From this range of evidence, the logical conclusion can be drawn that in fact a sizeable number of Jews in Palestine used Greek."--Stanley E. Porter, The Criteria for Authenticity in Historical-Jesus Research: Previous Discussion and New Proposals (London: T & T Clark, 2000), 134-5, 140-141." http://www.thesacredpage.com/2010/01/did-jesus-speak-greek.html
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Actually, Jesus was bilingual, he could speak Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, and Latin. When a Roman centurion spoke to Jesus, in which language to you think he spoke in? Why are all the oldest NT Gospels written in Greek? We have over 5, 300 Greek manuscripts of the NT. Under the influence of Alexander the Great and his succeeding generals, the Jews were hellenized, forced into Greek culture in part, as well as their language. So much so that most of the burial tombs among the Jews are inscribed in Greek.



"In the next article in the same issue of Biblical Archaeological Review, the author, Pieter W. Van Der Horst, points out that no less than 1,600 Jewish epitaphs -- funerary inscriptions -- are extant from ancient Palestine dating from 300 B.C. to 500 A.D. The geographical spread of these inscriptions reveal that Jews were living all over the world at that time, especially the Roman period. In other words, when Jesus' brother James said in Acts 15, "Moses has been preached in every city for generations past and is read in the synagogues on every sabbath" (v.21), he was simply stating the truth. Peter, in his first sermon, enumerates a list of the countries from which Jews came to worship on that first Pentecost of the newly formed Christian Church (Acts 2:9-11).



Van Der Horst goes on:



"One of the most surprising facts about these funerary inscriptions is that most of them are IN GREEK -- approximately 70 percent; about 12 percent are in Latin; and only 18 percent are in Hebrew or Aramaic.



"These figures are even more instructive if we break them down between Palestine and the Diaspora. Naturally in Palestine we would expect more Hebrew and Aramaic and less Greek. This is true, but not to any great extent. Even in Palestine approximately TWO-THIRDS of these inscriptions are in GREEK.



"APPARENTLY FOR A GREAT PART OF THE JEWISH POPULATION THE DAILY LANGUAGE WAS GREEK, EVEN IN PALESTINE. This is impressive testimony to the impact of Hellenistic culture on Jews in their mother country, to say nothing of the Diaspora.



"In Jerusalem itself about 40 PERCENT of the Jewish inscriptions from the first century period (before 70 C.E.) ARE IN GREEK. We may assume that most Jewish Jerusalemites who saw the inscriptions in situ were able to read them" ("Jewish Funerary Inscriptions -- Most Are in Greek," Pieter W. Van Der Horst, BAR, Sept.-Oct.1992, p.48)." http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm



"Greek in Ancient Palestinian Judaism

But it also seems that Greek was known to ancient Jews. The influence of Greek culture in the first century is clear from the fact that the high priest in 37 A.D. had a strikingly Greek name--Theophilus. It is striking to me that he did not feel the need to change his name to a Semitic one--there was apparently no problem with this high priest being called Theophilus (Ant. 18.123).



Many sources could be cited here. Stanley Porter writes,



". . . Jesus would probably be best described as productively multilingual in Greek and Aramaic, and possibly Hebrew, though Aramaic would have been his first language and Greek and Hebrew being second or acquired languages. . . He may also have been passively multilingual in Latin, although if he had any knowledge of Latin at all it is likely that it was confined to recognition of a few common words. This depiction reflects the linguistic realities of the Mediterranean world of Roman times, including that of the eastern Mediterranean, and is supported by widespread and significant literary, epigraphic, and other evidence. As a result of the conquests of Alexander III ('the Great'), and the rule of the Hellenistic kings (the Diadochi and their successors), the Greco-Roman world was one in which Greek became the language of trade, commerce and communication among the now joined (if not always united) people groups. In other words, Greek was the lingua franca for the eastern Mediterranean world, displacing Aramaic. . . .



The arguments for the use of Greek in Palestine are based upon the role of Greek as the lingua franca of the Roman empire, the specific Hellenized linguistic and cultural character of lower Galilee surrounded by the cities of the Decapolis, and the linguistic fact that the New Testament has been transmitted in Greek from its earliest documents. There is also a range of incriptional evidence (e.g., Jewish funerary inscriptions), numerous Greek papyri, and significant literary evidence, including Jewish books being written in or translated into Greek in Palestine. From this range of evidence, the logical conclusion can be drawn that in fact a sizeable number of Jews in Palestine used Greek."--Stanley E. Porter, The Criteria for Authenticity in Historical-Jesus Research: Previous Discussion and New Proposals (London: T & T Clark, 2000), 134-5, 140-141." http://www.thesacredpage.com/2010/01/did-jesus-speak-greek.html


Thank you, very informative post.

The Aramaic English NT, from what I understand, use the Eastern Church scripts, the Peshitta. I am just really getting into it. I find that it is more accurate than the Greek, but I am not an expert in it.
 

Totton Linnet

New member
Silver Subscriber
Totton, there was a son that was at the creation, and it was not a man. It was God's first creation, Christ. For God created all things through Christ. Christ is the exact image of God, a spirit, not a man. It took the form of man when it entered Jesus at his anointing.

I am giving you truth Totton, do what you wish with it. I have studied scripture for seventy years, this is what I believe.

There is only one true God, the Father.

You have wasted 70 years studying scripture without the only One who can teach it truly....the Holy Spirit

Scripture without the Holy Spirit is like a locked door without a key.

I never learn from the drippings of the mere human intellect...in fact I spit it out.
 

Totton Linnet

New member
Silver Subscriber
As I said, I gave you truth, do what you wish with it.

The Greek translations are not the best. This translation is from the language Jesus spoke in. I did not write it Totton, I just copied it for you to see.

I think the translators I use are not a whit behind the odd quacks you use...they also translated out of the original tongues.

Scripture truth has a weight of glory of it's own recognisable in whichever language it is written.

Your words do not have that weight of glory, that divine illuminance.

It plain doesn't taste right
 

Totton Linnet

New member
Silver Subscriber
Your wrong friend, scripture does not say Jesus is God. The confusion is because of the words in the Greek translations. Read the AENT verse above again. I believe it is more accurate than what you have.

John saw you coming, he stitches you up from whichever approach you make.

It does not matter what YOU say the Logos is

John says HE, He was in the beginning with God, HE was God, HE made all things, HE became flesh and dwelt among us.

You can't squirm around it

Not you, not shackles, not LA, not Pierac. not the Whites


......Uncle Tom Cobbler and all
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I do not see any love from you.

As for being a sinner, I am not.

Perhaps you are just blind and can not discern it.

But then you judge others by your personal beliefs as so many do.

LA

You are a hateful false judge and you cannot deceive so easily.

Anyone can read what you wrote.

Here is the post where you call me blind and cannot discern the truth.

You are such a deceitful person.

I responded to your false accusation of Keypurr.

You said you did not see any love in Keypurr, so I told you maybe you can not discern it.

Lying seems to be so easy for you, as you clamed I hated you, when I do not hate anyone.

LA
 

keypurr

Well-known member
John saw you coming, he stitches you up from whichever approach you make.

It does not matter what YOU say the Logos is

John says HE, He was in the beginning with God, HE was God, HE made all things, HE became flesh and dwelt among us.

You can't squirm around it

Not you, not shackles, not LA, not Pierac. not the Whites


......Uncle Tom Cobbler and all

John NEVER said that Jesus was God. He speaks of the Christ spirit being with God at the creation. I am not the one squirming Totton, you are grabbing at the straws of tradition.
 

Bright Raven

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
John NEVER said that Jesus was God. He speaks of the Christ spirit being with God at the creation. I am not the one squirming Totton, you are grabbing at the straws of tradition.

John doesn't have to Jesus said so himself.

John 8:58New King James Version (NKJV)

58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”

If you prefer the AENT, here it is

AENT Yochanan 8:58

Y'shua said to them, "Amen, amen I say to you that before Awraham existed, I was!"
 
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Totton Linnet

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Silver Subscriber
John NEVER said that Jesus was God. He speaks of the Christ spirit being with God at the creation. I am not the one squirming Totton, you are grabbing at the straws of tradition.

That is rubbish big time and you know it...who became flesh and dwelled among us?

He who was with God in the beginning and who was God?

Jesus Christ...John says it and you can't squirm out of it.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
John doesn't have to Jesus said so himself.



John 8:58New King James Version (NKJV)



58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”



If you prefer the AENT, here it is



AENT Yochanan 8:58



Y'shua said to them, "Amen, amen I say to you that before Awraham existed, I was!"


Christ spoke through Jesus, I have told you that many times.

Christ existed before the world did. But he is not God, he is a god. God created through Christ. His existence does not say or mean that he is God. I agree that he is a created form of God.

Why do folks add to what is written? We should not assume anything BR.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
That is rubbish big time and you know it...who became flesh and dwelled among us?



He who was with God in the beginning and who was God?



Jesus Christ...John says it and you can't squirm out of it.


Jesus was flesh, he did not become flesh.
The express image of the Father became flesh, that would be the spiritual son in Heb 1.

Your rubbish truck needs to emptied Totton, it smells.
 

Bright Raven

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Christ spoke through Jesus, I have told you that many times.

Christ existed before the world did. But he is not God, he is a god. God created through Christ. His existence does not say or mean that he is God. I agree that he is a created form of God.

Why do folks add to what is written? We should not assume anything BR.

You Keypurr are a polytheist. I'm very disappointed in that friend.
 

God's Truth

New member
You are such a deceitful person.

I responded to your false accusation of Keypurr.

You said you did not see any love in Keypurr, so I told you maybe you can not discern it.

Lying seems to be so easy for you, as you clamed I hated you, when I do not hate anyone.

LA

Jesus is God.

Tongue speaking ceased after the laying of the foundation.
 

God's Truth

New member
Tongues is still active in the church. The scripture says it will pass away, future tense. If you believe otherwise give book, chapter and verse to refute it.

Speaking in tongues was a gift given, a sign, given (Isaiah 28:11) during the laying of the foundation of the Church (Hebrews 2:4). It was a sign to the Jews (Acts 2:6). Speaking in tongues has served God's purpose, God has given the sign (1Cor 14:21), and God has laid the foundation (Eph 2:20). Speaking in tongues by the Gentiles showed the Jews that God granted even the Gentiles repentance unto life (Acts 11:18). Tongue speakers spoke mysteries (1 Cor 14:2); consequently, the mystery of the gospel has been given (Eph 6:19). Speaking in tongues is the language of angels (1 Cor 13:1), angels minister to humans (Hebrews 1:14). Humans are to understand speaking in tongues in earthly languages (Acts 2:6, 11). Speaking in tongues would be “stilled” (1 Cor 13:8).
 

Bright Raven

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Speaking in tongues was a gift given, a sign, given (Isaiah 28:11) during the laying of the foundation of the Church (Hebrews 2:4). It was a sign to the Jews (Acts 2:6). Speaking in tongues has served God's purpose, God has given the sign (1Cor 14:21), and God has laid the foundation (Eph 2:20). Speaking in tongues by the Gentiles showed the Jews that God granted even the Gentiles repentance unto life (Acts 11:18). Tongue speakers spoke mysteries (1 Cor 14:2); consequently, the mystery of the gospel has been given (Eph 6:19). Speaking in tongues is the language of angels (1 Cor 13:1), angels minister to humans (Hebrews 1:14). Humans are to understand speaking in tongues in earthly languages (Acts 2:6, 11). Speaking in tongues would be “stilled” (1 Cor 13:8).

You did not have to post all this gurbly de goop. 1 Corinthians 13:8 says that tongues will cease (future tense) not have ceased (Past tense). You have proved NOTHING!!!
 
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