not according to the US Department of Justice
acccording to the USDoJ, it used to be about "forcibly and against her will"
not "lack of consent"
Which is lack of consent. :duh:
Actually, it is not.
Against her will is not the same as without her consent.
In the many cases where a drunk man has sex with a drunk woman, where both agreed to have sex in their drunken state, the sex was not against her will, but it is now defined as being done without her consent since she was drunk.
Herewith, a Philadelphia magazine report about Swarthmore College, where in 2013 a student “was in her room with a guy with whom she’d been hooking up for three months”:
“They’d now decided — mutually, she thought — just to be friends. When he ended up falling asleep on her bed, she changed into pajamas and climbed in next to him. Soon, he was putting his arm around her and taking off her clothes. ‘I basically said, “No, I don’t want to have sex with you.” And then he said, “OK, that’s fine” and stopped. . . . And then he started again a few minutes later, taking off my panties, taking off his boxers. I just kind of laid there and didn’t do anything — I had already said no. I was just tired and wanted to go to bed. I let him finish. I pulled my panties back on and went to sleep.’”
Six weeks later, the woman reported that she had been raped. |
In the case of these college students, the sex was not done with violence or the threat of violence, nor was the sex done against her will.
She even consented to the sex at the time, just because she was tired and wanted to go to bed.
She removed consent six weeks later when she reported she had been raped.