First I want to thank you Luke for your willingness to continue. I've spent half a day responding to what you've said. I've not been this compelled to research and to think in quite a long time.
This post is ridiculously long! I don't expect and would actually prefer that you not respond to it all. These posts when responded to point for point as I have done here get to be exponential in their growth. So please feel free to just pick a handful of things to respond to or else just respond with a general response or whatever you like.
God bless you!
I've given quotations from two of the primary Reformed confessions of faith (the WCF and Canons of Dordt, articles 4-6), referenced a second generation Reformed thinker who was more influential at that time (Bullinger); referenced Herman Bavinck, and in doing so pointing out that the view of double predestination that you portray in the OP is a description of hyper-Calvinists/supralapsarians. And let's not forget that I even mentioned four-point Calvinists, namely Augustus Hopkins Strong and Millard J. Erickson.
All the while, what we've seen from you is nothing but a few quotations from Calvin and anecdotal statements. I just so happen to have anecdotal experiences to the contrary, having known plenty of Calvinists that distinguish between necessary/primary and contingent/secondary causes. "Living breathing 'Calvinists'", monsieur, "living and breathing".
I read your quotes and I'm sorry but it just seems to me to all be so much semantics. Again, and I'm not trying to just be stubborn here, the Calvinist doesn't mind having doctrines that contradict one another. They, of course, would say that they only seem to contradict and call it an antinomy but regardless of what they call it, the end result is the same. Out of one side of their mouth, the Calvinists you site say,
"God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and immutably ordain whatsoever comes to pass".
And then in the very same breath, but out of the other side of their mouth they say,
"yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established."
To which I respond, "Saying it doesn't make it so!"
I get your point. You're saying that they say they believe something and so I don't get to claim that they believe the contrary.
Except that I do get to claim that so long as I can establish what I claim. And I say that I've more than established it, I've proven it. I've been debating Calvinists for well over a decade and not just here on TOL. I've debated them on their own websites. Never one time have I ever come across a single Calvinist who has denied believing not only that God per-ordained every event that occurs but that God Himself is actively holding every atom in the universe together and that nothing could occur without God's sovereign hand firmly in the mix.
Further, it is the Westminster Confession of Faith itself that teaches "double predestination" (not there could rationally be any other kind).
By the decree of God, for the manifestation of His glory, some men and angels are predestinated unto everlasting life; and others foreordained to everlasting death. - Westminster Confession of Faith ch. 3
You have fostered the wrong impression, my friend. Let's not forget the usefulness of the principle of charity, lest we go off on irrelevant tangents because of an unwarranted assumption. I was agreeing with your definition, because of course that is the definition that any proper logician would use.
But I digress... what I had actually meant by that statement was that you agreed to the correction definition, and that should give us some pause as we examine what you were claiming. At this point I've referenced Reformed thinkers all the way from the first generation up to now. These references have unanimously contradicted your earlier claim, given the "train of the ungodly" quotation, that Reformed thinkers all believe that God damns the reprobate through necessary as opposed to contingent causes.
I quoted the WCF chapter 3 a moment ago.
It goes on to say...
Those of mankind that are predestinated unto life, God, before the foundation of the world was laid, according to His eternal and immutable purpose, and the secret counsel and good pleasure of His will, has chosen, in Christ, unto everlasting glory, out of His mere free grace and love, without any foresight of faith, or good works, or perseverance in either of them, or any other thing in the creature, as conditions, or causes moving Him thereunto; and all to the praise of His glorious grace.
So, if the predestination to life happened without cause then on what basis does any Calvinist claim that the predestination to death was WITH cause? The consistent ones make no such claim and the inconsistent ones try to come up with all kinds of confusing rationalizations but at the end of the day still maintain that God's absolute meticulous and personal control of every event that occurs is fully intact.
In other words, their objection to "double predestination" is semantics. It is semantics, Luke! I have no doubt that there's Calvinists out there that would jump up and down and pound their fists insisting that they do not believe that God causes sin but they cannot escape the rational implications of their core doctrines. Doctrines that they do not deny and are unwilling to modify in spite of the clear problems it causes in regards to the nature and source of sin.
This is the crux of why I believe you are committing a No True Scotsman. You have dismissed my counter examples out of hand.
But not without cause! I reject them because they do not establish your claim. I've not denied that such Calvinists exist. I've claimed that because they exist does not mean that what I've presented as Calvinism is inaccurate. What I've presented is not inaccurate at all. The exceptions you present, if anything, prove the rule.
You're right, especially in the last sentence here. However, there are numerous facts so far that you've ignored. So far, you haven't provided a single credible source as to why all Reformed thinkers have the same ideas as Calvin on double predestination. What you have provided so far is some quotation from Calvin and your own anecdotal opinion.
What I have provided so far, on the other hand, is key quotations from two different confessions of faith that whole Reformed denominations are based on. Presbyterians are required to affirm the WCF, for example. That's why I went to Dordt and WCF first, because there are several denominations centered around them. That is specifically how you are characterizing Reformed thinkers incorrectly. Calvin was an influential theologian, but he did not write any statements of faith that denominations are based on today. Those statements of faith contradict him, and people of those denominations are called "Calvinists", ergo they have every reason to call themselves Reformed.
Well, alright then lets look at the WCF....
Chapter 5
God the great Creator of all things does uphold, direct, dispose, and govern all creatures, actions, and things, from the greatest even to the least, by His most wise and holy providence, according to His infallible foreknowledge, and the free and immutable counsel of His own will, to the praise of the glory of His wisdom, power, justice, goodness, and mercy.
The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God so far manifest themselves in His providence, that it extends itself even to the first fall, and all other sins of angels and men; and that not by a bare permission, but such as has joined with it a most wise and powerful bounding, and otherwise ordering, and governing of them, in a manifold dispensation, to His own holy ends; yet so, as the sinfulness thereof proceeds only from the creature, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is nor can be the author or approver of sin
And so, once again, out of one side of the mouth comes one thing and from the other side, its opposite.
It is my contention that the latter comment concerning where sin proceeds from is nothing at all but pure lip service. It is the author's own testimony against himself. He knows that what he's just written accuses God of evil and so throws in a comment to the contrary to salve the conviction of his own heart. I admit readily that I cannot prove that contention but I do, nevertheless, believe it. I can see no other reason why it needs to be in there.
What on earth is your point? That what they believe doesn't make sense? Or that in spite of what they say you somehow have this special knowledge as to what they really mean? That they don't really believe God is just, etc.?
Both!
I don't deny that they actually believe what they say they believe but people can believe whatever they choose to believe. Branch Davidians believed (and some still do) that David Coresh was the second coming of Christ. Oprah Winfrey believes she's a wise woman. Just as their belief is not evidence that they are right nor is it evidence that they are self-consistent.
And you do have to be careful about what the Calvinist means when he speaks. You cannot take the statement "God is just." at face value because they will do whatever is needed to the definition of the word "just" to maintain their belief that God acts in an arbitrary manner.
Here's the rub: your quotations from Calvin don't determine what whole denominations believe. The four primary documents that fill that role are the WCF, Canons of Dordt, the Belgic Confession, and the Second Helvetic Confession (primarily authored by Bullinger). You say you've read them. If that's so, go ahead and find me a single quote from one of them explicitly indicating belief in the same idea that you've quoted from Calvin. I've already given quotations from two of them that explicitly deny necessary instead of contingent causes for people being reprobate.
I guess what I'm saying is that "necessary vs. contingent" causes is a distinction without a difference. It's similar to discussing the "perfect vs. permissive" will of God. The later category being inclusive of everything, including everything in the former category. Making the distinction meaningless.
To be more precise, in a discussion about justice the distinction between necessary and contingent is meaningless because regardless of the cause, or whether that cause was primary or secondary or necessary or contingent, the effect
could not have been otherwise. In other words, the following axiom cannot be denied by any Calvinist...
God's decree, therefore (fill in the blank). - i.e. you eating a chicken for dinner, someone shooting JFK, 9/11, Christmas, the fall of Adam, Calvary, righteousness, sin, whatever.
What occurs in between God's decree and the event is academic. Further, whatever causes falls in between God's decree and the event where themselves decreed by God, according to the Calvinist.
It doesn't seem complicated at all to me. Infra thinkers see primary and secondary causes, supra thinkers see only primary causes. How is that so?
From Bavinck on supra:
1. a decree determining the purpose of all things, namely, the revelation of God's virtues; specifically, the revelation of his mercy in the salvation of a definite number of possible men; and the revelation of his justice in the perdition of another definite number of possible men 2. a decree to create the men thus elected and reprobated.
On infra:
1. a decree to create man in holiness and blessedness. 2. a decree to permit man to fall. 3. a decree to elect some out of this fallen multitude and to leave others in their misery.
The difference seems pretty clear to me, it's not hard to go from either viewpoint to how they work out in the scriptures. Think of the way the first part of the decree is stated in the infralapsarian order. This is why many people have called supralapsarians "hyper-Calvinists", as they agree with Calvinist's "train of the ungodly". Supralapsarians are a minority.
The WCF and virtually every Calvinist I've ever come across wants to have their cake and eat it too. They want it both ways as is demonstrated by what I've already quoted directly from the WCF.
What you're suggesting (at least so far as I can tell), however, is that we can go beyond the grammatico-historical approach and insert our own ideas about justice, etc. to see what the bible is saying, that we can use our own broken moral capacities to look at the bible and determine what is moral.
On the contrary, it is the bible that tells us what is moral. We can't look at the bible and say to ourselves "well it can't be saying this because I don't agree with that", rather the impetus is on us to better learn what the scriptures have to say and go from there.
Again, self-contradictory.
If assigning the label "broken capacities" to the use of sound reason was appropriate then there would be no way for us to understand anything. If you argue that the bible teaches that our minds are broken then I would ask by what process you came to understand that the bible taught that? By what process did you read the bible and discern the nature of morality if not by the application of sound reason?
There is no way to "learn what the scriptures have to say and go from there" apart from the application of sound reason. There is NO other way.
Not really. I was making a distinction between a posteriori reasoning in the case of the scriptures, and a priori reasoning in the case of pre-filtering the a posteriori information with our own rationalizations. There's nothing contradictory about the idea that our a priori reasoning is flawed, and in need of being amended by a posteriori reasoning, through the scriptures.
The Lord Himself points out that we need to test things against the information we've already been given ("see that you're not led astray"), in the Olivet Discourse (Mark 13, Matthew 24, Luke 21) and elsewhere.
Then answer the question. By what process, other than coherent thought (a.k.a. sound reason) do you distinguish a posteriori from a priori? By what process do you determine which are flawed and need amending and to what degree and in which direction? By what process, if not sound reason, do you "test things against the information we've already been given"?
The mistake you are making here is a very common one. That mistake being that the bible is somehow super-rational. That God Himself is super-rational. He is not! God is no more super-rational than He is super-just or super-love. God not only is loving, He is love. God not only is righteous, He is righteousness. In the first chapter of John we learn that God is Logos. God is logic. God is not only logical, He is logic. Attempting to understand the bible without sound reason is an attempt to understand God's word without God. It is fundamentally self-contradictory.
For clarity's sake: I had meant that in reference to the group in question. About as "anti" intellectual as Reformed thinkers get is in the realm of Reformed epistemology, e.g. Kierkegaard, Plantinga, the sensus divinitatus, and I wouldn't say that such material is militant against reason at all. Now, is there an abundance of lay persons with a different attitude? Absolutely. Lay persons have much of the same tendencies in every denomination in all of Christendom, for Pete's sake!
You cannot be seriously suggesting that the acceptance of antinomy is not common place throughout Christianity.
Here is just one quote that is typical of Christian thought regardless of denomination...
"...the heretic often refuses to recognize that Christian Revelation contains truths that sometimes have two sides irreconcilable by human reason. One example of a Christian antinomy is the truth that God is almighty, or omnipotent, and yet that men also have been given free-will by their creator." - C.B. Moss, D.D - "The Christian Faith: An Introduction to Dogmatic Theology"
So you just magically know what everyone is thinking? You somehow know that, despite them actually believing in something, they know it doesn't make sense and they've decided to live with it? Let me guess, more references to anecdotal examples...
It isn't magic. Its called long experience. That and I can read.
I'm not new to this topic, Luke. You aren't the first to make these arguments and you won't be the last. I've debated lay people, pastors and professors and I've read or listened to every debate on the topic I can lay my hands on. I've read C.S. Lewis, R.C. Sproul., Pink and half a dozen other Calvinists on a wide variety of subjects and have yet to find one that did not hold to the belief that God is utterly immutable and that therefore His decrees are immutable and will immutably come to pass. Some give more accommodation to man's will than others but it is always an accommodation, and they are always left with the choice of undermining either God's immutability or man's will and they universally choose to undermine man's will, never even questioning whether their understanding of God's immutability needs looked at.
You certainly wouldn't find a description like that in Reformed literature. But I'm sure you would hear just that if you asked anyone in such a denomination that question on the street.
You aren't likely to find an overt definition of justice in any Calvinists literature at all! Its as if they avoid the subject except to state their belief that God is just.
What you will find and what I have already quoted is their belief that God chooses people to save (or condemn) arbitrarily. Salvation, in the mind of ANY Calvinist, is by God's arbitrary decree.
Their ONLY defense against the accusation that such arbitrary action on God's part is unjust is to say that it is just because God did it (an argument that has been made on this very thread) and then, if pressed, to pull out the antinomy card. It is another example of blind belief. They DO consider their willingness to believe both things as faith and piety.
Your idea of an arbitrary definition is hundreds of years old. Doesn't seem all that arbitrary to me. Rather, it seems like the universe of discourse is quite a bit older than modern English, hence the words they've had to borrow from English, for the benefit of English speakers who don't speak Latin, etc., are not going to mean what they do in the common vernacular.
Arbitrary is perhaps the wrong word. They do have a reason for changing the definitions of common words. That reason being the preservation of the core doctrines. My point is that it is not a valid tactic.
If, for example, we were debating the color of the sky and you decided that it was red instead of blue. If you redefined the words "red" and "sky" so that the statement, "The sky is red." is true, it wouldn't mean you won the debate. It would mean that you cheated.
Please ruminate with me for a second on this emboldened portion. Do you mean to say that all considerations of anachronism should go out the window, that we should blindly trust everything in a translation and think as if we are the original audience?
No, I don't mean that. That would be definitely taking my position too far.
My only point is that the bible is not even 10% as complicated as most theologians turn it into. You can, for the most part, simply read the bible and understand what its talking about. It isn't written in code such that only the experts can get it. It was written in normal language to normal people and most translations get it mostly right.
(A) Are you at all able to recognize a distinction in the nature of different kinds of causes?
As I said before, they are distinctions without a difference. They seem entirely rhetorical.
(B) How do you define the word "just"?
I do not get to define the word "just".
The word means what it means.
Justice is righteousness. If I'm not mistaken, the Hebrew language uses the same word for both, the distinction, if any, being determined by the context.
In interactions with other people it is encapsulated by the Golden Rule, "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you." In criminal justice it is the converse, thus it justly is done unto the criminal as he did or sought to do unto his neighbor (i.e. an eye for an eye).
The bible constantly likens justice to a financial transaction where a debt is owed by the sinner and must be paid either by the sinner himself or by a substitute. The point being that justice includes the concept of equability or fairness. If a man has stolen $100 it would not be just to require him to pay $20,000. Nor would it be just to punish a man for an offense he was not guilty of or that was an accident. (Calvinism's predestination and sovereignty of God doctrines reduce every event to accidents in so far as man's will is concerned.)
The bottom line here is that justice is not arbitrary. There is a standard, that standard being righteousness. To believe that God is arbitrary, as ALL Calvinists do, is to believe God is unrighteous.
What is your response to portions of Job which state that we all deserve condemnation?
All have rebelled against the God of life and therefore deserve death.
Grace is unmerited, correct?
Of course!
But not in the Calvinist sense of the word! God is NOT arbitrary!
My sister gave me a very expensive watch one year for my birthday. I didn't earn that watch. It was a gift. My opening the package and putting the watch on my arm didn't earn me the watch. It was a gift that I did not earn and that was offered freely out of love and that I accepted in love.
In the same fashion, God decided to pay the sin debt of the whole world (which He did not have to do but that was His prerogative) and elected to save those who would respond to Him in faith. Thus grace is not antithetical to justice, as the Calvinist repeatedly claims, but is in complete compliance with it. For if justice requires our death and God can do ANYTHING at all and remain just then where is the need for Christ's death?
Except Reformed thinkers affirm each of the original Ecumenical Creeds, including the Apostle's Creed, the Athanasian Creed, and the Definition of Chalcedon. Augustine did as well. So maybe your idea of how they use the word "immutable" is a bit off?
Nope!
Again, they love to have their cake and to eat it too. They simply are fine with the contradictory nature of their beliefs.
I do not deny that they wholeheartedly affirm the incarnation, death and resurrection of Christ but pin them down on whether God died for the sin and they'll get all squirmy and uncomfortable. And they get that way because they are ABSOLUTELY not willing to accept the notion that God can change - period.
Or are you right across the board about everything... not even willing to assent to that?
I'm willing to accent to anything that you can demonstrate. But you'll fail to demonstrate that I've got this one wrong.
Go ahead and find me one reference to a thinker in the Augustinian tradition who uses the word "immutable" to describe anything other than God's divine nature.
I could quote nearly any Calvinist you want to name from Calvin on through to R.C. Sproul! In fact, let me just quote Sproul (Calvin's position isn't in dispute)...
It [divine immutability] is likely the most overlooked, under appreciated, unknown attribute of the living God. Of course we are in grave danger indeed if we seek to pit against one another or to rank in relative importance the attributes of God. The doctrine of His simplicity reminds us that God is one, that He is not composed of parts. The attributes of God are not like that old spiritual, Dry Bones, wherein we affirm that the wrath bone’s connected to the justice bone, the justice bone’s connected to the omniscience bone. Neither does God find balance between competing qualities, as if His wrath were muted by His grace, or His love tempered by His holiness. These are all one, the same thing. In the end all of what He is He is because He is God.
and elsewhere Sproul writes...
When we consider love as an attribute of God, we recognize that it is defined in relation to all the other attributes of God. This is true not only of love but also of every other attribute of God. It is important to remember that when we speak of the attributes of God, we are speaking of properties that cannot be reduced to composite parts. One of the first affirmations we make about the nature of God is that He is not a composite being. Rather we confess that God is a simple being. This does not mean that God is "easy" in the sense that a simple task is not a difficult task. Here simplicity is not contrasted with difficulty but with composition. A being who is composite is made up of definite parts. As a human creature, I am composed of many parts, such as arms, legs, eyes, ears, lungs, etc.
As a simple being, God is not made up of parts as we are. This is crucial to any proper understanding of the nature of God. This means that God is not partly immutable, partly omniscient, partly omnipotent, or partly infinite. He is not constructed of a section or segment of being that is then added to other sections or segments to comprise the whole of God. It is not so much that God has attributes but rather that He is His attributes. In simple terms (as distinct from difficult terms) this means that all of God's attributes help define all of His other attributes. For example, when we say God is immutable, we are also saying that His immutability is an eternal immutability, an omnipotent immutability, a holy immutability, a loving immutability, etc. By the same token His love is an immutable love, an eternal love, an omnipotent love, a holy love, etc. - emphasis added - R.C. Sproul - Loved by God Chapter 1
Sproul on whether God changes His mind...
Does God Change His Mind? If God is immutable, if He does not change at all, does that mean He never changes His mind either? This is a very thorny problem. The Bible appears to say at times that God changed His mind. - (He goes on to explain how the biblical references to God changing His mind are figures of speech.) - One Holy Passion by R.C. Sproul.
And finally (This is a great example of an appeal to antinomy (mystery) where Sproul simply affirms both that God became a man and that God is immutable with no attempt to reconcile the two. Keep in mind also what I've already quoted Sproul as saying about the simplicity of God and how you cannot separate any one aspect of God from another.)...
Christ’s existence as true God and true man, as well as the reality of the transcendent Lord of glory entering into history to save His people, are both profound
mysteries. What we do know is that, against those who would espouse a “kenotic Christology,”
the Son did not give up any of the attributes that are essential to deity in the incarnation. Instead, He manifested the form of God in the likeness of humanity. Augustine wrote, “He is said to have ‘emptied himself’ in no other way than by taking the form of a servant, not by losing the form of God. For that nature by which he is equal to the Father in the form of God remained immutable while he took our mutable nature” - emphasis added -
From Ligonier Ministries, the teaching fellowship of R.C. Sproul
Resting in Him,
Clete