Rosenritter
New member
Jesus was not a Levitical priest, so there was no way He would have lied by claiming that He was a priest.
Hebrews 5:8-10 KJV
(8) Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;
(9) And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
(10) Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.
Looks to me like he had the right and authority to call himself a priest.
Were the priests of the temple men or gods?
If the priests were men, then the example Jesus is giving is of how men can still be blameless when they do certain things that can be considered to be profaning the Sabbath.
Men can be blameless when fulfilling their ordained roles in service of God (or God by extension, in the example of the temple. David was held blameless for eating the shewbread as it was given to him by the priests, and he was in the service of God as the then-ordained and future-to-be-established King of Israel.
Jesus continued to antagonize the self-proclaimed experts of the Law by revealing their errors relating to the Law.
I can provide dozens of examples of Jesus doing that very thing, if you want.
So why would he antagonize them by making Himself God? For divorce, covetousness, and the like these reasons are obvious and I am sure very easy for you to explain. What would not fit this picture is continuing is for a mere man to give the signs and answers that make himself God.