Butterfly
New member
MAD sucks.
Apparently you can't follow rules and requests:
GO AWAY
Let me start by asking that troublemakers and opposers who are already convinced of themselves please refrain from posting in this thread.
MAD sucks.
GO AWAY
Let me start by asking that troublemakers and opposers who are already convinced of themselves please refrain from posting in this thread.
Apparently you can't follow rules and requests:
Yes, great post randy. The 4 gospels make so much sense when you remove all hint of the gentile church or heathen gentiles. The kingdom being taken away from the pharasees and given to the little flock is then understood to be the disciples. This makes sense in light of the old testament like the verses you mentioned in 1 Samuel and isaiah and ezekiel.
∅2L84U;2209964 said:1. Did the Holy Spirit dwell in those after Christ's resurrection (Pentecost, Stephen, and so on) as He does in the Body of Christ? If not, what is the difference.
2. When John the Baptist proclaimed that Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit and fire. Is this different than the baptism by the Holy Spirit into the Body of Christ?
Fire, water, etc. are used various ways in various contexts. Fire can be the power or purification of God in the believer, judgment (lake of) of the unbeliever, etc.
In Acts, the GIVING of the Spirit to the Church was evidenced by the symbol of tongues of fire over their heads. Since the Spirit is only given once when the Church is birthed, we do not see this every time a Christian receives the Pentecostal experience. In the same chapter, the RECEIVING of the Holy Spirit (post-conversion Pentecostal experience vs initial reception of the Spirit when we receive Christ as Lord/Savior) by an individual was proven by the initial, physical evidence of speaking in tongues. This is the classical (vs charismatic) doctrinal distinctive in line with Scripture and experienced by hundreds of millions of believers today (counterfeit, demonic, fleshly tongues does not disprove Spirit-given genuine tongues). The second work of grace/entire sanctification is a wrong Wesleyan doctrine and should not be confused with the Pentecostal experience (Acts 1:8; Acts 2:4; I Cor. 12-14).
Take your time, and thanks again.Just a quick drive-by, so no time to take a stab at 2L8's questions. But I'll reiterate the request again to not make this a debate thread. A respectful request to you, again, godrulz, to let this be ONLY for people who have a sincere interest in learning the position (ultimately agree or not).
Thanks,
Randy
∅2L84U;2209964 said:chickenman...
Thank you, my friend, for taking time to allow me to share some of my thoughts and questions with you on the phone today.
My wife and I are starting at the beginning of this thread, and reading the posts from those who are contributing an explanation of a MAD perspective.
We would like to ask our questions as they come up, only when there is something we do not understand. Hopefully, others will still respect the rules of this thread, and allow us to consider your responses, which we thank you for in advance.
1. Did the Holy Spirit dwell in those after Christ's resurrection (Pentecost, Stephen, and so on) as He does in the Body of Christ? If not, what is the difference.
2. When John the Baptist proclaimed that Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit and fire. Is this different than the baptism by the Holy Spirit into the Body of Christ?
Just a quick drive-by, so no time to take a stab at 2L8's questions. But I'll reiterate the request again to not make this a debate thread. A respectful request to you, again, godrulz, to let this be ONLY for people who have a sincere interest in learning the position (ultimately agree or not).
Thanks,
Randy
I agree. Excellent explanation of the baptisms. Is the baptism with the Spirit as described in Joel and Ezekiel part of the promised New Covenant to israel randy?
I agree. Excellent explanation of the baptisms. Is the baptism with the Spirit as described in Joel and Ezekiel part of the promised New Covenant to israel randy?