We know that a lot of perversions were common in the Old Testament. :dizzy: You are what God calls :listen: unclean (Is. 52:1). :granite:We know that polygyny was common in the OT...
See:
Concupiscence
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We know that a lot of perversions were common in the Old Testament. :dizzy: You are what God calls :listen: unclean (Is. 52:1). :granite:We know that polygyny was common in the OT...
Apparently you don't know the meaning of the word "adultery," or the word that was translated "adultery."I am baffled by your response. I am asking a specific question about adultery and the law and if there is one rule for women and another for men. Yes, the symbolism is there but that isn't the point of the thread.
Look at the contrast of:
Thou shalt not commit adultery
and
2 Samuel 2:7
Then Nathan said to David, “You are the man! This is what the Lord, the God of Israel, says: ‘I anointed you king over Israel, and I delivered you from the hand of Saul. I gave your master’s house to you, and your master’s wives into your arms. I gave you all Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more.
Where does this leave the 7th commandment?
When the bible discusses what occurred in history, it isn't a ringing endorsement of it. :dizzy:
"Deut 21:15–17 has two wives. In the original, the words are rendered “has had two wives,” referring to events that have already taken place, evidently intimating that one wife is dead and another has taken her place. Moses, then, is not legislating on a polygamous case where a man has two wives at the same time, but on that of a man who has married twice in succession. The man may prefer the second wife and be exhorted by her to give his inheritance to one of her sons. The issue involves the principle of the inheritance of the firstborn (the right of primogenitor). The firstborn son of the man, whether from the favorite wife or not, was to receive the double portion of the inheritance. The father did not have the authority to transfer this right to another son. This did not apply to sons of a concubine (Gen. 21:9–13) or in cases of misconduct (Gen. 49:3, 4)." MacArthur, J., Jr. (Ed.). (1997). The MacArthur Study Bible (electronic ed., p. 126). Nashville, TN: Word Pub.
Women were property. There was no law prohibiting a man from having more than one house or more than one farm animal or more than one woman.
Jesus said he did not come to abolish the law but to magnify and expand it. Jesus redefined adultery and murder for those who accept him.
All wrong.
The reason Paul uses the vantage point from the woman is because under Mosaic law women were not given any authority to divorce their husbands and this was culturally understood in his day.
Apparently you don't know the meaning of the word "adultery," or the word that was translated "adultery."
Not one of the 22 translations here renders it in the past tense.
Adulterers :banana: don't go to heaven (1 Co 9-10, Ro 1:28-32). :burnlib:
See:
PeaceMakingPolygamist
According to Yoḥanon-benYaʿăqov, there is one rule for women and another for men.
For women:
If a legally married woman has sexual relations with any man other than her husband, she is guilty of adultery and by proxy makes her partner guilty of adultery as well.
For men:
If a married man has sexual relations with a single woman that is not adultery...
Astonishing.
That appears to be an orthodox understanding of the verses. Was the man who posted this into Torah study?
Are you accepting his assertion? I don't know if said poster is as you describe.
I am not accepting his assertion. However, if he is an Orthodox Jew and he is committed to Torah study, his assertion would be more accurate in description of Torah matters. The divide would come in when Jesus is added to this equation. Much deliberation goes into the meaning of the Torah through the eyes of the New Testament believer. There is much infighting on these matters among New Testament believers.
I will assert that the orthodox, Jewish perspective would be more accurate in reference to Torah revelation.
Unfortunately, your OP is relegated to New Testament matters by cited scripture. This means the infighting and discussion to solve this puzzle must take place for the purpose of gathering a more accurate sample of understanding from New Testament believers.
After going back and reading the previous posts, I can see that you have no solid answers to draw from. The best I could do is begin to express the various New Testament beliefs on this matter.
Would that help at all?