Lon
Well-known member
If the shoe fits... You might like sandals, but your shoe size is showing.Don't try to hang a handle on me brother.
I didn't learn that from any man.
Trinitarianism ain't my bag either but I reckon it's okay to glean that.
Do some of the Scriptural Truths offend you?
- Thread starter Dougcho
- Start date
1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
I need to point out something critical ...
Several NT verses state that Jesus Christ came from heaven,
Father God sent Jesus Christ to earth, etc. etc.
But, these verses are talking about the GOD part of Jesus Christ,
who is the Word (the Logos) ... and NOT the MAN part of Jesus Christ.
Similarly, when NT verses talk about Jesus Christ walking around everywhere,
they are referring to Jesus Christ the MAN, not Jesus Christ who is GOD.
Because He did.
Because He did.
Straw man.
Jesus BECAME a man at the incarnation.
It would help if you actually were arguing against what scripture says.
They are the same Person, Doug.
Jesus is both man AND God.
He was not a man prior to the incarnation, but He was God. After the incarnation, He had acquired a new form, that being "man."
Jesus is not two people.
Lon
Well-known member
Not who, what. Isaiah 45:5 Hebrews 7:3 John 1:1-3 Scripture needs to inform your theology, else it is just you, and an imperializing of just 'your thoughts' over His. If He is God, let Him tell you Who He is.
Micah 5:2 Psalm 90:2 Genesis 1:1
7djengo7
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@Clete correctly stated:
In Genesis 32:27-28, we read:
Note that Jacob was not told that he would no longer be referred to by his name -- the word "Jacob". Nor was he even told that he would no longer be addressed by his name -- the word "Jacob". Had he been told such, it seems he could only have been told such erroneously, since in the sequel we find even God, Himself, both referring to and addressing Jacob by his name -- the word "Jacob". In Genesis 46:2 for instance:
See, Jacob's still Jacob, even though he is Israel.
To which you responded by writing:
The man, Jacob, is the man, Israel. The nation of Israel is Jacob's descendants, and the Bible refers to the nation of Israel sometimes as "Israel", and sometimes (as in the phrase "the time of Jacob’s trouble") as "Jacob".
What do you mean by "changed"? Jacob's name "Jacob" never stopped being Jacob's name "Jacob". Do you just mean Jacob was given another name -- "Israel" -- in addition to his name "Jacob"?Jacob's name was changed.
In Genesis 32:27-28, we read:
| And he said unto him, What is thy name? And he said, Jacob. And he said, Thy name shall be called no more Jacob, but Israel: for as a prince hast thou power with God and with men, and hast prevailed. |
Note that Jacob was not told that he would no longer be referred to by his name -- the word "Jacob". Nor was he even told that he would no longer be addressed by his name -- the word "Jacob". Had he been told such, it seems he could only have been told such erroneously, since in the sequel we find even God, Himself, both referring to and addressing Jacob by his name -- the word "Jacob". In Genesis 46:2 for instance:
| And God spake unto Israel in the visions of the night, and said, Jacob, Jacob. And he said, Here am I. |
See, Jacob's still Jacob, even though he is Israel.
7djengo7
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Then we'll ask you: Is God, by His word "light", referring to a person when He says "Let there be light"? Do you really imagine He is doing so?
By your phrase "the Light", when you say "Who is the Light?" are you referring to what God is referring to by His word "light", when He says "Let there be light"? If so, why would you do so?
Nor does He have two natures. He is One being with One nature. He is THE God-man. He didn't acquire a second nature that was superimposed on His old nature but He BECAME a human being and remains one to this day.
(Not that you disagree with any of that! I'm just bored.)
Jesus Christ (the Man) was created at the Incarnation by the Holy Spirit.
Jesus Christ (GOD) was created when the Word became flesh-human-Jesus.
No one knows exactly when ... before or after birth?
Jesus Christ, fully Man and fully GOD, never came down from heaven.
Hope this helps someone understand the Truth of what happened!
7djengo7
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Yes! Thanks! It helps us understand that at some point one or more demons must have entered into you, took the reins of your speech and cognitive faculties, and have no intention of exiting. Seems they want to take you along with them to where they know they're going.
Very amusing!
Now, why not explain how one (or more) of my statements are untrue.
7djengo7
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OK.
This false statement of yours
is false because Jesus Christ was not created.
This false statement of yours
is false because Jesus Christ was not created.
This false statement of yours
is false because Jesus Christ came down from heaven.
Now, explain why you are too stupid to have figured that out for yourself, Christ-hater; explain why you needed it explained to you.
No, He wasn't.
His body was, the flesh-tent that He indwelt at the incarnation, that grew for 9 months in His mother's womb, and then for another 33 years until He was crucified.
But Jesus Christ was not created.
Jesus Christ was not created.
He IS the Creator!
You're literally denying scripture at this point.
Get thee hence, Satan.
None of what you say is Truth.
Lon
Well-known member
At least he is clear now 0.o
1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
Peter said they had a more sure word of prophecy. That would include John who is speaking of the beginning also (context) He said the Light is a person. So let God's word inform you.
1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
7djengo7
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@1Mind1Spirit
I asked you:
You: <NO ANSWER>
God, in Genesis 1:3, when He says "Let there be light," is by His word "light" either referring to a person, or not. Which is it? Is God, in Genesis 1:3, when He says "Let there be light," by His word "light", referring to a person? Yes or No?
Bringing up what Peter wrote, and what John wrote does not hide your failure to answer the question I asked you about what Moses wrote in his record of the words God spake: "Let there be light."
I asked you:
You: <NO ANSWER>
God, in Genesis 1:3, when He says "Let there be light," is by His word "light" either referring to a person, or not. Which is it? Is God, in Genesis 1:3, when He says "Let there be light," by His word "light", referring to a person? Yes or No?
Bringing up what Peter wrote, and what John wrote does not hide your failure to answer the question I asked you about what Moses wrote in his record of the words God spake: "Let there be light."
Do you not believe the truth John stated about that Light, viz., that all things were made by that Light (Him), and that without that Light (Him) was not anything made that was made? To assert that the Light that John wrote of in John 1:7 is the light Moses wrote of in Genesis 1:3 is to heretically deny the truth that the Word created the heaven and the earth. The light of which God said "Let there be light" did not create the heaven and the earth; that Light of which John wrote in his prologue is The Creator of the heaven and the earth. That Light of which John wrote in his prologue is He Who, as Moses records in Genesis 1:3, spoke the words "Let there be light." And that Light certainly was not referring to Himself by His word "light" when He said "Let there be light."
7djengo7
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I won't watch that video until you first tell me what (if anything) is said in it that you imagine is somehow a "rebuttal" to something I wrote.
But the cartoon character in the thumbnail reminds me a little of Brooks Hatlen in The Shawshank Redemption.
1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
Why are you asking things I've already said?
1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
Not a rebuttal.
It further explains what I've said.
Jacob and Israel have different meanings.
Yer mighty slow on the uptake.