fining them wouldn't be necessary if they were executed
I don't understand how you think the mechanism of fining people for infidelity would work, or why it's even necessary.
Because in the case of divorce, the spouse who was cheated on should not have to suffer financially because his/her partner did the wrong thing. This should never be considered a "no fault divorce".
Well, there's not always financial hardship on the part of the person who was cheated on...so, again, not sure why you think we should reduce infidelity to cutting a check. How about letting these people handle their own very personal business without involving the government hopping in? I don't understand that mentality at all.
It is handled exactly that way which is why it isn't equitable.
You are entitled to your opinion even though you are wrong. ANYONE who knowingly has a disease and spreads it to their spouse without their consent deserves time behind bars and even a possible death sentence. Causing intentional harm to another human being should always be a criminal act. Marriage shouldn't make a difference.
Well, there's not always financial hardship on the part of the person who was cheated on...so, again, not sure why you think we should reduce infidelity to cutting a check. How about letting these people handle their own very personal business without involving the government hopping in? I don't understand that mentality at all.
Should depend on the couple in question. If they want to work things out by themselves without the government getting involved then certainly they should be able to do so.
The government would be for when they have unresolved issues between them that they can't work out themselves.
We have courts and lawyers for that already--what Rusha seems to be suggesting goes well above and beyond the current system.
That's a different issue than one spouse being unfaithful to the other. Although by sleeping around, if they are not exceptionally careful, they do risk such things as bring STD's home. I would say that marriage implies monogamy unless both parties agree otherwise, so I would certainly consider someone infecting their partner with an STD that they acquired through extramarital sexual relations behind their partner's back to be deserving of criminal prosecution.
then i challenge you to make an argument for any role for the state regarding marriage
Everyone doing what they want with no reference to any other authority than themselves.
That's what I mean when I use the word "anarchy." If I use it with some other meaning, I'll indicate that I am.
Which is why I stated in the case where no physical harm is caused, the adulterous spouse should be penalized by paying a large amount of compensation to the spouse who was cheated on due to the financial hardship of the victimized spouse (not alimony or child support).
And ... it should be enforced.
Hold on, are you saying that in order to be a Christian you must not only believe in Jesus Christ as the perfect sacrifice for your sins, but also support the institution of Old Testament Law?i have to laugh at you foolish God-rejecting retards trying to improve on what God has given us :chuckle:
I don't understand how you think the mechanism of fining people for infidelity would work, or why it's even necessary.
fining them wouldn't be necessary if they were executed
Because in the case of divorce, the spouse who was cheated on should not have to suffer financially because his/her partner did the wrong thing. This should never be considered a "no fault divorce".
Well again, why don't you consider it fair? If there's no financial hardship involved and two folks go their separate ways, would you say that's fair enough and just leave it at that? I'm honestly real surprised to see you favoring something that's frankly more along the lines of the other side's thinking.
Nah, as far as the criminal prosecution, BTB pretty much summed up my position.
I am not speaking of a couple that has agreed to have an open marriage. I am speaking of one spouse bringing something into the marriage that the other spouse did not agree to. A deadly STD. Just like when you marry someone, neither partner needs to say "I thought it was fine to sprinkle arsenic on your toast without mentioning it to you ... because, we are a couple."
Women don't want to be prostitutes,
Men don't want to be seen with a prostitute,
Yet people want it legalized.
Errr.. ...what's wrong with this picture folks.
Actions have consequences. If someone is stupid enough to sell there actual body to the kind of slime that would pay for a body, then they can't be surprised at what might happen to them.
Its like this: Nobody deserves to get robbed or have their money stolen. But if you are dumb enough to walk in a really bad neighborhood with wads of cash hanging out of your pocket, then guess what: You're getting robbed man, and you have your own stupidity to blame for it.
I can't speak for Granite, but I don't think there should be any such role.
Well, if the other partner reports it, its certainly possible. And frankly, I think enforcing drug laws is harder, since in those cases there often is nobody with incentive to report (although, of course, I think those are bad laws to.)
What other side?
I tend to agree.
Reporting's one thing, proof is another. This is an extra layer of bureaucracy and trouble we don't need, and that remains unnecessary. I mean, really--we're supposed to cut checks on top of the messiness of getting divorced in the first place? And all because someone stepped out? Foolish.
Yours, although you happen to be more reasonable than most.
Irrelevant to the fact that there is still a victim.Adultery is grounds for divorce, if the cuckolded spouse wishes to terminate the marriage over it. Aside from that there is no reason for the state to get involved.
How are the rights of the spouse not violated?I think the problem is that libertarians are using terms differently than you are.
"Victim" does not simply mean that an action somehow causes unpleasant consequences, it means that someone's rights were violated. Which means their right to self-ownership or the ownership of their property was breeched. Which isn't the case in adultery.
Now, I understand that you are a theonomist and so you think adultery should be criminal because it was in the Old Testament. But I'm operating on a different axiom here.
How are the rights of the spouse not violated?
P.S.
breached.
i'd shoot the scumbag :idunno:
right where it don't grow back
There was a violation. And being of one flesh with one's spouse means it was their person that was violated.Because the spouse was not attacked, nor was her property.
Should it be a crime to give that child food and then take it away from them and eat it?Now, does it take a scumbag to do that? Sure. Similar to how it takes a scumbag to see a starving child and just pass them by, but that isn't a crime.
How was prostitution not a crime? Adultery was certainly a crime, so prostitutes were not allowed to be married or have sex with someone who was married. And if they were single and had sex with someone else who was single and they were caught in the act they were forced to get married to each other.Now, here's the interesting thing. Even in the Old Testament prostitution wasn't a crime per say. So, I find it interesting how theonomists are so quick to want to criminalize it.
Speaking of which: "per se," and "Nazi." The latter is supposed to be capitalized.Fair enough, I'm not a spelling nazi
Actually my reason is that it's not necessary to kill anyone to prevent the adultery from taking place. But in such a situation I could very well get a little physically violent.Here's something that should put things in perspective, Lighthouse.
You see someone about to shoot a child. You have a gun and have the ability, with a very high likelihood of success, to quickly pull it out and shoot the perpetrator before he can kill the child. Would you do it? I think you would.
The next day, you see a man who you know is married about to walk into a hotel room with a married woman who you know is not his spouse. The man told you the previous day that he was going to go into that hotel and have an adulterous relationship with that woman. You have a gun on hand and could kill one or both of the parties in order to prevent the adulterous affair from occurring. Do you do it? I don't think you do.
Why? Because again, the adultery is in the strictest sense victimless. Yes, its horrible and its going to very likely have a profound emotional impact on the spouses of the adulterers, but its not an aggressive act and thus rightly not a crime.