Universalism house of cards falls again!
Universalism house of cards falls again!
red77 said:
Why do you get to pick and choose what gets to be interpreted as a parable and what isnt?
But I don't. IF this were a parable it would be the ONLY parable that Jesus told in which SPECIFIC names are used. So the onus is again NOT on me to prove WHY it is not a parable. The onus is on YOU to prove why it is!
The ONLY reason this is considered a literal event by ET'ers is because of the use of a name -
And why do you think that is, Red? Could it be because it would be the ONLY parable in which a name is used? And the text says there was a "CERTAIN rich man" (emphasis mine). There was a CERTAIN rich man, and a CERTAIN beggar NAMED Lazarus. Sounds like real people to me!
and that name translates as "misery",
Actually the name in the Greek is the exact same name used of the Lazarus Jesus rose from the dead. Same name, different guy. And the meaning of the name is actually best translated into English as
"The one that God helps"
whats more it falls apart as has been shown time and again to regard this as a literal event because of the suspension of belief one has to have to believe that a man can talk rationally while on fire
Talk rationally? In verse 23 it says that he was in torment.
In verse 24 it says “Then
he cried and said, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus that he may dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue;
for I am tormented in this flame.’
Where you suspend rationality is trying to explain away the torture the man is going through and say that HE is talking RATIONALLY. The text clearly says he is CRYING OUT! In fact here is another word study for you, the Greek word for "cried" has in its meaning to call out loudly! It is in fact used of Jesus when He cries out "with a loud voice" in Luke 23:46. It is used of Paul in Acts 16:28 when he again "calls out with a loud voice". In Revelation 14:18 it is used of an angel who "Cried out with a loud voice".
In every instance I see this word used in the New Testament, it always means to cry out with a loud voice. So in order to swallow your story that the man is talking rationally, we must ignore what this word "Cried" means in the text.
Further in verse 27 he is begging for mercy for his unsaved brothers.
Red77 can you provide proof that people in torment CANNOT cry in a loud voice and beg for mercy? If so please cite your source or else please stop making this argument because it doesn't work!