ARGH!!! Calvinism makes me furious!!!

swanca99

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Originally posted by Turbo

Seriously, have you ever read the book of Jonah? Jonah delivers a prophecy from God that does not come to pass. Or do you have some way of explaining that away, too?

Do you reject the words God spoke in Jeremiah 18? You're saying that Clete's interpretation is insincere?That's exactly what the author of Jonah did.

Besides, you are in effect saying that what God said would happen in Jeremiah 18 did not happen.

As you can see by my info on the left, I am new to TOL.

And I had never heard of the "Open View" until I discovered TOL two months ago.

So please forgive me if my questions seem stupid and/or if you have answered them a hundred times (which no doubt you have, but consider this an opportunity to build your number of posts...).

By "Jonah delivers a prophecy from God that does not come to pass," are you referring to Jonah's message, "Yet forty days, and Nineveh shall be overthrown," and then Ninevah does not get overthrown because they repent?

Jeremiah 18:7-8 says "At what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, and to pull down, and to destroy it; If that nation, against whom I have pronounced, turn from their evil, I will repent of the evil that I thought to do unto them." Are you saying that God is admitting here that He will sometimes say He is definitely going to do something that He will end up not doing?

I got the quotes from Turbo's post, but I'm posing this question to any of you OVers who care to respond.

Thanks...
 

Poly

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Originally posted by swanca99

As you can see by my info on the left, I am new to TOL.

And I had never heard of the "Open View" until I discovered TOL two months ago.

So please forgive me if my questions seem stupid and/or if you have answered them a hundred times (which no doubt you have, but consider this an opportunity to build your number of posts...).

By "Jonah delivers a prophecy from God that does not come to pass," are you referring to Jonah's message, "Yet forty days, and Nineveh shall be overthrown," and then Ninevah does not get overthrown because they repent?
Yes

Jeremiah 18:7-8 says "At what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, and to pull down, and to destroy it; If that nation, against whom I have pronounced, turn from their evil, I will repent of the evil that I thought to do unto them." Are you saying that God is admitting here that He will sometimes say He is definitely going to do something that He will end up not doing?

I got the quotes from Turbo's post, but I'm posing this question to any of you OVers who care to respond.

Thanks...

Sometimes, if necessary, yes. He also says further in the passage that if a nation whom He chooses to bless, does evil then He will not bless them as He said He would.

Btw, welcome to TOL.
 

swanca99

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Thanks for the response, Poly.

You've probably read a response similar to the one I'm about to give, but here goes...

In both of these passages, God seems not to be decreeing something that will definitely come to pass, but stating what will take place if things remain as they are, i.e., a conditional prophesy designed to bring about repentance or to keep the hearers on the straight-and-narrow. The Jeremiah passage seems to state the principle that is illustrated in Jonah.

Jonah apparently understood that God would spare Nineveh if they repented, and that his preaching to them might bring about their repentance. That's why he didn't want to go there. His behaviour in chapter 4 shows that he WANTED Nineveh to be destroyed.

Although I hate to rely much on logic, consider this question: If God was not going to allow Nineveh the opportunity to repent, why would He have sent anybody to them to begin with, let alone go to such great lengths as to commission a large marine creature to insure His messenger got there? The attitude He displays in chapter 4 indicates that He WANTED them to repent.

In the dozen or so times that I have read both Jonah and Jeremiah (and I have taught Jonah twice), it has never struck me that God said He was definitely going to do something and then didn't do it. The same goes with Matthew 16:28, in which case it seems that you are essentially saying that Jesus made a mistake. Did YOU see these passages this way before you were exposed to the open view doctrine?

OK OVers. I've lit the pilot light. Go ahead and turn on the gas and let the flaming begin!
 

swanca99

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Originally posted by Knight

Today I was listening to a Christian station on the radio. And there was a public service spot which featured a woman explaining a heart wrenching story. She explained that she was diagnosed with Leukemia on her child’s first birthday. She explained that she was treated with intense chemotherapy. She went on to say that she was comforted by God (which of course is fantastic). But then she said that God have given her the cancer so God would also give her the strength to get through it.

Was this lady a Calvinist?

By the way, nice guitar...
 

Delmar

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Originally posted by swanca99 [/b

In the dozen or so times that I have read both Jonah and Jeremiah (and I have taught Jonah twice), it has never struck me that God said He was definitely going to do something and then didn't do it. The same goes with Matthew 16:28, in which case it seems that you are essentially saying that Jesus made a mistake.
Not at all.

Let's say, for example, that on Tuesday I told my son he could go bowling on Saturday afternoon. Then on Saturday morning he his mother told him to clean his room. If he refuses to clean his room should I let him do bowling? Was I wrong on Tuseday?
Did YOU see these passages this way before you were exposed to the open view doctrine?
No, I saw them as confusing and troubling
 

Clete

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swanca99,

You've asked excellent questions and it's quite all right that they are not new questions. I seem to never get tired of answering questions when they come from someone who is actually looking for an answer, so keep em coming.

The point about Jonah's prophecy going unfulfilled has nothing to do with what God or Jonah expected to happen; it has to do with what God said He would do verses what actually came to pass. Calvinists and pretty much all Christians believe that prophecy is prewritten history and that just simply doesn't square with what the Bible clearly says.
And in regards to Jesus having made a mistake, deardelmar has it right. Jesus did not make a mistake. What He said was exactly correct given the circumstances under which it was spoken. But Israel had been warned repeatedly that if they were evil, God would not give them their kingdom. In fact, Jeremiah chapter 18 says this explicitly and all of Israel would have been very much familiar with the book of Jeremiah including the section that we refer to now as chapter 18. So Jesus did not make a mistake but Israel made a really big one, which was to get a major case of the big head and take their relationship with God for granted.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Clete

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Rolf,

I take it that since there has been more than one person point out correctly how you stepped off into the hypocrisy pit, that you understand why I'm having such a hard time taking you seriously. You demand that I not do certain things and then you turn around and do that very thing yourself on the very next sentence! I don't even understand how that's possible!

Be that as it may, I'm quite willing to continue this discussion with you but you have got to cool your jets and start coming to this discussion with at least a modicum of respect and present arguments that at least display that you have some understanding of what the Open View actually teaches. All this freaking out about how we accuse God of being evil and calling Jesus a liar and the rest is just utter nonsense. We do not believe God is evil, we don't believe Jesus screwed up or was confused or any of the other hundred things I've heard the Open View be accused of by you and others.
If you don't understand what we believe then ask and I'll happily answer any question you have but I just simply don't have time to deal with posts like #1805 where you accuse me of saying that Jesus didn't mean what He said (which isn't what I believe) and then you sit there and explain how He didn't mean what He appears to be saying! It's just insane!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

God_Is_Truth

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Originally posted by swanca99

I believe the transfiguration is what Jesus referred to.

In the transfiguration, there is a foretaste, a preview if you will, of the kingdom. We see Christ glorified, Moses respresenting those who had died in ages past and will be resurrected for the kingdom, Elijah representing those who will enter the kingdom without first tasting physical death, and the disciples representing those in the kingdom who are still in their earthly bodies.

Just my humble opinion, although I'm not the only one who believes it.

hmm, there are similiarities, i agree. but i just don't know if i can justify calling that "coming in his kingdom". to come, you have to leave first and he didn't go anywhere before the transfiguration. that's probably my biggest hang up with that interpretation.
 

Rolf Ernst

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Clete-- You believe that what Jesus intended did not come to pass as He expected, and as He said. Arminians and OVers believe that generally; especially in regards to what transpired while God was casting off Israel and sending His message to the gentiles.

Arminians/OVers believe that God was not sovereign, that men were able to foil His purposes, and as I read your comment, it seemed that you were saying that this was one of those instances. THAT GOES BEYOND THE INTERPRETATION OF SCRIPTURE. Instead, Rather than an honest interpretation of scripture, it is an odious critique against the Godhead and His Word, positing a failure of God to perform that which He had purposed and prophesied.

What is so offensive is that these accusations against God's ability to
fulfill His purpose arise only because men prefer to believe that to be the case rather than take to time to understand scripture. Swannca and Godrulz resolved the seeming contradiction in a God honoring fashion. You, on the other hand, are always looking for some indication that God is no more powerful than His creatures. You even say that He is less powerful when you maintain that the will of creatures of a moment's lifespan MUST TRIUMPH OVER THE WILL OF GOD, or else they don't have free will. Yet it never passes into your skull that you are proposing on the other hand that God can't have free will because His will can't preempt the SACROSANCT (ha, ha) will of fallen creatures. How nauseating! Mt. 16:27,28 is just another text where you naturally fall into your accuse God posture (again, that does not qualify to be called an interpretation of Scripture).

I stated (as did Swannca and Godrulz) a God honoring understanding
of those verses. You will continue to posit a failure on the part of Christ's understanding and a consequent failure in the integrity of His Word rather than seriously consider the words of the text.

Nevertheless, the word of God is settled in heaven. In verse 27, Jesus was speaking of His coming in the glory of the Father with His angels. In verse 28, He was speaking of the beginnings of His kingdom--that it would be taking place so soon that men who were yet alive would see it. Anyone with a modicum of interest in the integrity of scripture is able to discern that a manifestation described as cooming the the glory of the Father with His angels is NOT the SAME manifestation spoken of in verse 28: Christ coming in the glory of HIS KINGDOM

As others besides Swannca and Godrulz have
pointed out, the beginning of the manifestation of His kingdom happened shortly afterward on the mount of transfiguration where He appeared in the glory that was due Him. Next, the manifestation of
Him as the resurrected prophet, priest, and king in that kingdom; next
the day of pentecost and the work of the Holy Spirit, sweeping thousands in that one day into the "kingdom of His dear Son." Throughout the book of Acts, the continuing progress and success of the gospel; finally, what might have been the last evidence of Him coming into His kingdom seen by those who were with Him before they died--the revelation given to John on the isle of Patmos.

THE BIBLE IS VERY CLEAR THAT THE WORDS OF JESUS WERE FULFILLED PRECISELY AS HE SAID. YET YOU RUSH TO POSIT FAILURE AND LACK OF KNOWLEDGE ON HIS PART AND THE FRUSTRATION OF GOD'S PURPOSES BY MEN FEEBLE AS WORMS WHOSE TIME ON EARTH IS BUT A SHADOW. That is NOT interpreting the bible. It is judging it.
Some people, when they come upon texts which seem to be contradictory, do not jump with glee, saying, "see, here is another place where what God said did not happen." Instead, they pray, "Lord, open thou mine eyes, that I may behold wondrous things in thy word!"
FINALLY--IF ONLY YOU HAD THE TIME LEFT OVER FROM YOUR CRITICISMS OF SCRIPTURE TO GET A CONCORDANCE AND READ EVERY VERSE WHERE "KINGDOM" IS FOUND IN THE New Testament. Then, you might BEGIN to understand what Jesus was speaking of in the 28th verse---and it WASN'T the judgement He was speaking of in the 27th verse!!!!!!!!! God has "translated us into the kingdom of His dear Son" Col 1:13
 
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swanca99

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Originally posted by God_Is_Truth

hmm, there are similiarities, i agree. but i just don't know if i can justify calling that "coming in his kingdom". to come, you have to leave first and he didn't go anywhere before the transfiguration. that's probably my biggest hang up with that interpretation.

That's fine...I'm not claiming that my interpretation is absolutely the correct one, or the only acceptable one. There are others. Personally, I'm convinced (at least for the time being...) that mine is the correct one, based on the context, but you'll form your own view as you continue to study.
 

swanca99

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Thanks for your answers, Clete.


Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

The point about Jonah's prophecy going unfulfilled has nothing to do with what God or Jonah expected to happen; it has to do with what God said He would do verses what actually came to pass. Calvinists and pretty much all Christians believe that prophecy is prewritten history and that just simply doesn't square with what the Bible clearly says.

I agree with you at least in part here. Prophecy sometimes includes FORETELLING, but it is primary FORTHTELLING. One of the primary purposes of the Old Testament prophets was to bring Israel back to obedience to the law. Many (perhaps even most...I really haven't taken a count) of the OT prophetic Scriptures are conditional forthtellings...do this, stop doing that, or else...

I see Jonah's prophecy, and those of Jeremiah 18, to be in the same vein as those conditional forthtellings. Granted they are couched differently. Instead of the formula, "behave this way and good things will happen, behave that way and bad things will happen," they are couched in the formula "because you have been behaving this way, you will be blessed, but if you turn to evil you will be destroyed," or "because you have been behaving that way you will be destroyed, but if you repent you will be spared." I have always understood Jonah's prophecy to be of the latter type, although granted it is different in some regards. For one thing, it is one of the few instances of an Israelite prophet being sent to a foreign nation. Also, I'll grant you that his message may not have included a "but if you repent" clause (based not only on the brief message itself, but also on the king of Nineveh's comments, i.e., "Who can tell if God will turn and repent," etc.), but I still consider this utterance to be of the same conditional formula as used in Jeremiah.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

And in regards to Jesus having made a mistake, deardelmar has it right. Jesus did not make a mistake. What He said was exactly correct given the circumstances under which it was spoken. But Israel had been warned repeatedly that if they were evil, God would not give them their kingdom. In fact, Jeremiah chapter 18 says this explicitly and all of Israel would have been very much familiar with the book of Jeremiah including the section that we refer to now as chapter 18. So Jesus did not make a mistake but Israel made a really big one, which was to get a major case of the big head and take their relationship with God for granted.

Again, we have some common ground here. I believe that Jesus, in His first advent, did offer Himself to Israel as their King and, if they had accepted Him, He would have set up the kingdom that is described in the OT. But as you have seen in my previous posts, I don't interpret Matthew 16:28 as being related to that (notice that this statement is made, in Matthew anyway, AFTER the point at which Israel's rejection became apparent and Jesus began to speak in parables that describe the period between the advents, chapters 12 and 13). The interpretation that I have accepted explains, to me anyway, the statement that Jesus made, without compromising His omniscience. I believe that God not only KNEW that Israel would reject Jesus, but he also decreed it. I base that belief on Romans chapters 9 through 11 and a passage in Ephesians (3:1-7). I know there are other verses I could cite as well to support that belief, but that's all I can think of right now...
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst

Clete-- You believe that what Jesus intended did not come to pass as He expected, and as He said. Arminians and OVers believe that generally; especially in regards to what transpired while God was casting off Israel and sending His message to the gentiles.

Taken as a general statement, I would say that this is accurate, but only of OVers. Arminians believe that God foreknows the future exhaustively and so could never expect one thing and get another.

Arminians/OVers believe that God was not sovereign, that men were able to foil His purposes, and as I read your comment, it seemed that you were saying that this was one of those instances.
I do not believe that there has ever been even one single second when God was not sovereign, not one single second.

THAT GOES BEYOND THE INTERPRETATION OF SCRIPTURE. Instead, Rather than an honest interpretation of scripture, it is an odious critique against the Godhead and His Word, positing a failure of God to perform that which He had purposed and prophesied.
How is it not Biblical Rolf?
My interpretation is consistent with the plain reading of the text and is a perfectly acceptable occurrence given the principles that are clearly laid down in Jer. 18. In other words, I let the Bible say what it seems to say and allow the Bible to interpret itself. I don't have a convoluted definition of what it means for God to be sovereign and so I don't have to try to make this (or pretty much any passage) say something other than what a third grader would get from it if they read it.


What is so offensive is that these accusations against God's ability to fulfill His purpose arise only because men prefer to believe that to be the case rather than take to time to understand scripture.
No one said anything about a lack of ability on God's part! God can do whatever He wants, whenever He wants to do it. But actions have consequences Rolf, even for God. When God created man kind, He no longer lived in a vacuum. His actions or lack thereof have an impact in us and on the universe we live in as well as the whole of reality. If God were to remove our freewill, which I freely concede that He could do if He wanted, the result would be a complete lack of our ability to actually and genuinely love God or anyone else.
So while your foundational presupposition seems to be the obsolute sovereignty (total control) of God, mine is God's desire to have a loving relationship with His creation. The point is that God cannot have it both ways. Without risking rejection, no one, including God, will ever experience love, ever.

Swannca and Godrulz resolved the seeming contradiction in a God honoring fashion. You, on the other hand, are always looking for some indication that God is no more powerful than His creatures.
I never said any such thing. In fact, I've repeatedly said the reverse. You really need to shut off the emotionalism and simply read my post and take them one step at a time. You are really poor at reading into what I say. I general say what I mean and mean what I say. Your attempting to read my intent is a waste of time.

You even say that He is less powerful when you maintain that the will of creatures of a moment's lifespan MUST TRIUMPH OVER THE WILL OF GOD, or else they don't have free will. Yet it never passes into your skull that you are proposing on the other hand that God can't have free will because His will can't preempt the SACROSANCT (ha, ha) will of fallen creatures. How nauseating!
Again, I've never said that God CANNOT but that He DOES NOT overcome our free will. The thing that God CANNOT do is to remove our freewill, punish or reward our actions and remain just. This not because of a lack in God's ability or power but simply an expression of the meaning of JUSTICE.
If anything it is the Calvinists version of God that is weaker, not of the OV. The Calvinist God cannot even dare to take a risk. If He ever did, He would break or something.

Mt. 16:27,28 is just another text where you naturally fall into your accuse God posture (again, that does not qualify to be called an interpretation of Scripture).
What have I accused God of? Saying what He meant and meaning what He said?

I stated (as did Swannca and Godrulz) a God honoring understanding of those verses. You will continue to posit a failure on the part of Christ's understanding and a consequent failure in the integrity of His Word rather than seriously consider the words of the text.
Again, and hopefully for the last time, I posit no mistake or misunderstand on the part of Christ! On the contrary, Jesus said precisely what He meant and meant just what it seems like He meant. He wasn't wrong; He wasn't mistaken; He wasn't confused. Had Israel not rejected their risen Messiah, things would have proceeded exactly as He had predicted.

Nevertheless, the word of God is settled in heaven. In verse 27, Jesus was speaking of His coming in the glory of the Father with His angels. In verse 28, He was speaking of the beginnings of His kingdom--that it would be taking place so soon that men who were yet alive would see it. Anyone with a modicum of interest in the integrity of scripture is able to discern that a manifestation described as coming in the glory of the Father with His angels is NOT the SAME manifestation spoken of in verse 28: Christ coming in the glory of HIS KINGDOM

As others besides Swannca and Godrulz have
pointed out, the beginning of the manifestation of His kingdom happened shortly afterward on the mount of transfiguration where He appeared in the glory that was due Him. Next, the manifestation of Him as the resurrected prophet, priest, and king in that kingdom; next the day of pentecost and the work of the Holy Spirit, sweeping thousands in that one day into the "kingdom of His dear Son." Throughout the book of Acts, the continuing progress and success of the gospel; finally, what might have been the last evidence of Him coming into His kingdom seen by those who were with Him before they died--the revelation given to John on the isle of Patmos.

THE BIBLE IS VERY CLEAR THAT THE WORDS OF JESUS WERE FULFILLED PRECISELY AS HE SAID. YET YOU RUSH TO POSIT FAILURE AND LACK OF KNOWLEDGE ON HIS PART AND THE FRUSTRATION OF GOD'S PURPOSES BY MEN FEEBLE AS WORMS WHOSE TIME ON EARTH IS BUT A SHADOW. That is NOT interpreting the bible. It is judging it.
You need to make up your mind. First Jesus was talking about the destruction of Israel by the Romans, then it was the transfiguration, now its some mixture of Paul's gospel of the mystery (the Body of Christ) and that which was spoken of in John's Revelation.
Give me a break. Isn't is so much easier to simply take Jesus at His word and accept that He was referring to the 2nd coming and His establishment of Israel's promised Kingdom, which was the subject of His entire ministry?
It fascinates me how you react so vitriolicly about how I "pass judgment of the words of Christ" and yet I am the one who wants to take what He said at its face value and use the simplest and most obvious interpretation of the text!

Some people, when they come upon texts which seem to be contradictory, do not jump with glee, saying, "see, here is another place where what God said did not happen." Instead, they pray, "Lord, open thou mine eyes, that I may behold wondrous things in thy word!"
There is no contradiction that needs explaining. That's just the point! Don't you get it! The only way there would be a contradiction that needs explaining here is if I were a Calvinist! The Open View allows me to read this passage and take it totally at its face value and find no conflict that needs resolved at all! It means exactly what it says as does pretty much the entire Bible.

FINALLY--IF ONLY YOU HAD THE TIME LEFT OVER FROM YOUR CRITICISMS OF SCRIPTURE TO GET A CONCORDANCE AND READ EVERY VERSE WHERE "KINGDOM" IS FOUND IN THE New Testament. Then, you might BEGIN to understand what Jesus was speaking of in the 28th verse---and it WASN'T the judgment He was speaking of in the 27th verse!!!!!!!!! God has "translated us into the kingdom of His dear Son" Col 1:13
I have concordances and I've done my share of word studies and the like and they have their place but it is interesting the effort you have to go through to understand such an incredibly simple issue. This is quite typical of the way most Christians and virtually all Calvinists study the Bible though. Instead of studying countless details in an attempt to get a hold of the bigger picture, I recommend doing the reverse. Once you get an understanding of the big picture, the details become incredibly easy. Doing it the other way around is just a crap shoot; sometimes you'll get it right and others you won't and the more times you get it wrong the more likely you'll continue to get things wrong. This is how we got to the point of having hundreds of Christian sects all over the world and how it was possible for pagan Greek philosophy (Augustinian immutability/predestination) to gain such a foothold in the church in the first place.

Resting in Him,
Clete


P.S. swanca99, good post! I'll repsond as soon as time allows.
 

godrulz

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Originally posted by deardelmar

WRONG!!!



There is more than one way to view sovereignty:

hyper-Calvinism= meticulous control/determinism

Open View= providential control= biblical/responsive/omnicompetent
 

Clete

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Originally posted by swanca99
I agree with you at least in part here. Prophecy sometimes includes FORETELLING, but it is primary FORTHTELLING. One of the primary purposes of the Old Testament prophets was to bring Israel back to obedience to the law. Many (perhaps even most...I really haven't taken a count) of the OT prophetic Scriptures are conditional forthtellings...do this, stop doing that, or else...

I see Jonah's prophecy, and those of Jeremiah 18, to be in the same vein as those conditional forthtellings. Granted they are couched differently. Instead of the formula, "behave this way and good things will happen, behave that way and bad things will happen," they are couched in the formula "because you have been behaving this way, you will be blessed, but if you turn to evil you will be destroyed," or "because you have been behaving that way you will be destroyed, but if you repent you will be spared." I have always understood Jonah's prophecy to be of the latter type, although granted it is different in some regards. For one thing, it is one of the few instances of an Israelite prophet being sent to a foreign nation. Also, I'll grant you that his message may not have included a "but if you repent" clause (based not only on the brief message itself, but also on the king of Nineveh's comments, i.e., "Who can tell if God will turn and repent," etc.), but I still consider this utterance to be of the same conditional formula as used in Jeremiah.
I would say that you are correct. Jonah's prophecy was definitely subject to the conditions/principles laid down in Jer. 18. I would go a step further than you though and say that ALL PROPHECY is subject to these principles with the exception being those prophecies which are by God concerning Himself and things that He intends to bring to pass that have only to do with Him and are not based on what men do or don't do. (The glorification of the Body of Christ or God's promise to never again destroy the Earth by way of a flood would good examples of such a prophecy.)

Again, we have some common ground here. I believe that Jesus, in His first advent, did offer Himself to Israel as their King and, if they had accepted Him, He would have set up the kingdom that is described in the OT. But as you have seen in my previous posts, I don't interpret Matthew 16:28 as being related to that (notice that this statement is made, in Matthew anyway, AFTER the point at which Israel's rejection became apparent and Jesus began to speak in parables that describe the period between the advents, chapters 12 and 13).
Israel was being offered their kingdom for some time (probably about a year) after Pentecost. Certainly Peter made the offer during his Pentecostal address and I believe a very strong case can be made that Israel was not cut off until the stoning of Stephen in Acts Chap 7 and that God began the process of turning instead to the Gentiles with the Gospel of Grace when Paul was converted in Acts 9.

The interpretation that I have accepted explains, to me anyway, the statement that Jesus made, without compromising His omniscience.
Owch! You know what you've done here, or at least what it seems like you've done here? You've allowed your theology to influence the text rather than the other way around. If the obvious meaning of the this text runs smack into a brick wall with regard to your theology, then I recommend modifying your theology, not the meaning of a simple reading of the text. I understand that some texts are more complicated than others and that more effort is needed to figure out what is being said but for the most part, the Bible means what it seems to mean.
God knows all that is knowable, that He wants to know. That's all the omniscience I need, and that's all the omniscience the Bible supports. Such an understanding of omniscience does no injury to God or His character any more than say His omnipotence is limited to His being able to do all that is doable that He wants to do.


I believe that God not only KNEW that Israel would reject Jesus, but he also decreed it. I base that belief on Romans chapters 9 through 11 and a passage in Ephesians (3:1-7). I know there are other verses I could cite as well to support that belief, but that's all I can think of right now...
Romans chapter 9 is basically the exact same as Jer. 18. It is making the same point and is perhaps the best chapter in the Bible to use to argue AGAINST predestination and exhaustive foreknowledge. As a matter of fact, Romans 9 is not about predestination at all. See post 1232 on this thread.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Rolf Ernst

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Clete--your 1834 post. You say that you have never believed for one second that God is not sovereign. I guess that means you justy have a very low view of what "sovereignty" means.

To you it doesn't mean that He fulfills "all" His counsel. To you it doesn't mean that He works "all" things after the "counsel" of His own will as Paul told the Ephesians.

Even tho the Bible asks, "With whom took He counsel, or who hath instructed Him?" "the counsel of His own will" must mean to you what He decided to do after taking counsel with the worm called man rather than the "counsel of His own will" signifying the wisdom that is in His will independently of all His creatures.

"The cloud is turned round about by His "counsel" to do whatever HE commands it upon the face of the whole earth."

"Whatsoever the LORD pleased, THAT DID HE in heaven and in earth; in the seas and all deep places."

"He does according to His will in the army of heaven and among the inhabitants of the earth and none can stay His hand, or say unto Him, what are you doing?"

The above verses demonstrate what sovereignty in the biblical sense of the word means; and they don't leave room for a view of God as one whose eternal purposes or holy and just counsels are ever frustrated by the will of man.
 

godrulz

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God does whatever He pleases, but this does not mean He controls every moral and mundane choice in the universe. It pleases Him to give us genuine freedom so that we may know and love Him in relationship (vs robots).

Just because He is all-powerful, does not mean He does everything doable all the time.

Just because He is sovereign, does not mean that some do not rebel against His authority. His will and purposes are resisted as evidenced in the ministry of Jesus, God with a face. In the end, He will rule and reign in truth and justice. In the meantime, Lucifer and Adam fell, Israel rebelled, Hitler killed Jews, etc. God is not directly culpable for these things.

Jesus' ministry shows a warfare model, not a blueprint world view.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
The above verses demonstrate what sovereignty in the biblical sense of the word means; and they don't leave room for a view of God as one whose eternal purposes or holy and just counsels are ever frustrated by the will of man.
Another classic example of how the typical Christian studies the Bible. Pathetic!

You realize of course that all that is required to detroy (and I mean completely detroy) this assinine argument is for me to show a single instance in the Bible where something happens that God did not want to happen or where God wanted something to happen that didn't.

Would you like to make a wager on whether or not I'm able to do that?

Never mind about the wager, I can't wait that long.

  • Luke 7:30 “30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.”
  • Jeremiah 19:5 “5 They have built also the high places of Baal, to burn their sons with fire for burnt offerings unto Baal, which I commanded not, nor spake it, neither came it into my mind:
  • Genesis 6:6 - And the Lord was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart.
  • I Samuel 15:35 - And Samuel went no more to see Saul until the day of his death. Nevertheless Samuel mourned for Saul, and the Lord regretted that He had made Saul king over Israel.
  • Jer. 18:8, 10 - and if that nation, concerning which I have spoken, turns from its evil, I will repent of the evil that I intended to do to it. and if it does evil in my sight, not listening to my voice, then I will repent of the good which I had intended to do to it.
  • Jer 26:3 It may be they will listen, and every one turn from his evil way, that I may repent of the evil which I intend to do to them because of their evil doings.
  • Isaiah 5:
    1 Now let me sing to my Well-beloved
    A song of my Beloved regarding His vineyard:

    My Well-beloved has a vineyard
    On a very fruitful hill.
    2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones,
    And planted it with the choicest vine.
    He built a tower in its midst,
    And also made a winepress in it;
    So He expected it to bring forth good grapes,
    But it brought forth wild grapes.


    3 "And now, O inhabitants of Jerusalem and men of Judah,
    Judge, please, between Me and My vineyard.
    4 What more could have been done to My vineyard
    That I have not done in it?
    Why then, when I expected it to bring forth good grapes,
    Did it bring forth wild grapes?

    5 And now, please let Me tell you what I will do to My vineyard:
    I will take away its hedge, and it shall be burned;
    And break down its wall, and it shall be trampled down.
    6 I will lay it waste;
    It shall not be pruned or dug,
    But there shall come up briers and thorns.
    I will also command the clouds
    That they rain no rain on it."

    7 For the vineyard of the LORD of hosts is the house of Israel,
    And the men of Judah are His pleasant plant.
    He looked for justice, but behold, oppression;
    For righteousness, but behold, a cry for help.
  • Proverbs 1:24 Because I have called and you refused, I have stretched out my hand and no one regarded, 25 Because you disdained all my counsel, And would have none of my rebuke,
  • John 5:40 “But you are not willing to come to Me that you may have life.
  • Acts 7:51 “You stiff-necked and uncircumcised in heart and ears! You always resist the Holy Spirit; as your fathers did, so do you.

And I've got more where that came from!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Poly

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In all those verses Clete quoted it sounds as if God is just peachy about what is going on.... NOT!!
In those verses it's clear that God is, let's see, how did Rolf put it?

Oh yeah! :idea:
Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
.....frustrated by the will of man.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
See, Clete, that is a demonstration of your problem. Just because you THINK you have found a verse that contradicts a verse whose message you don't like, you run to the verse whose message SEEMS
contradictory to the other and choose the verse whose message you THINK is the one agreeeable to your own doctrine. The truth is that the verses you prefer do NOT contradict the other verses. You just can't see how they fit together

You are so far from seeking to understand how all verses are woven into a faultless whole that you take delight in verses which SEEM to contradict. THEN, without fail you always adopt between the two the verse which, according your interpretation, diminishes the glory of God. For Example, there are many verses which teach that God that God is immutable in His being and purposes; but you don't like that, so you look for one that SEEMS contradictory to the verse which clearly states that Gods IS immutable. Having found that SEEMING contradiction you make no effort to understand how both verses fit together without contradiction. You are happy to leave the tension there in your mind. The important thing to you is that you found a verse which--to your mind--refutes the doctrine of God's immutability which you find distasteful.

To maintain that idea, you disallow any anthropomorphisms OR any
possibility that God may be speaking in scripture through the perspective of men; both of which are often the case in scripture; but you will accept nothing other than the idea that God is NOT immutable OR all knowing OR really ABSOLUTELY SOVEREIGN.

BUT this you can be sure of, Clete--God is infinitely perfect in all His attributes. There is no excellence which He does not possess to an infinite degree. Therefore, if you see two verses which SEEM to be contradictory, that verse which more fully ascribes glorious perfection to God is the verse whose clear meaning should be accepted as the clearer statement in regard to Him, and the theologian who prefers to honor God rather than accept a diminished view of Him knows by that the misunderstanding has to do with the verse which SEEMS to contradict the verse which ascribes glory to God.

A theologian who, on trhe other hand WANTS to find less than infinite perfections in God will hunt feverishly for verses which seem to deny His glorious attributes. Such a theologian is obsessed with a desire to whittle God down to his own size. The verses you cited above are some of the verses you misunderstand. They DON'T contradict those verses which more clearly ascribe glory to God. In my next post, I will begin to deal with them one by one.
 
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