ARCHIVE: Presuppositionalism - What and Why?

Soulman

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The problem with your theory is, that while it explains evil, it does nothing to explain good.
If by “good” you mean “good deeds” done on behalf of others, nothing more is needed than pure selfishness. People “do good” for reasons as crass as assuaging “guilt” or for reasons as mundane as making themselves “feel” good. If by “good” you mean sunlight and rain and food and shelter and health and the love of our children, it would appear that “good” is distributed in a very haphazard manner with no discernable pattern of “logical coherence.”

Randomness explains "good" -- or a tragedy -- as well as ”the providence of God” -- with a lot less fuss.
 

Chileice

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Originally posted by Balder

Soulman,

I am not signing on to defend Christian Presuppositionalism, but I did want to say that embracing a view of complete randomness -- while an understandable reaction to disillusionment with a particular view that pretends to have things "all sewn up" -- is the far end of a pendulum swing, and too extreme in my opinion. You would not even be able to conceive of "randomness" and disorder if you did not also perceive order in the world. People often talk about entropy, using it as proof of the ultimate disorder and randomness of the universe, but they neglect self-organization, autopoesis. Ilya Prigogine's work on dissipative structures and self-organizing systems shows beyond doubt the principles of self-organization at work, even in the inanimate world.

Peace,
Balder

Thank you, Balder. I think you are right, insofar as you go with this post.
 

Chileice

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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

While I appreciate the point Chileice makes, I would suggest that it explains neither good nor evil. Good and evil both presuppose a standard that would not exist without there being a God. In a "random" universe, morallity could not exist. Neither could the concept of order or randomness for that matter. It is incoherent on its face, especially if one attempts to explain the problem of evil by employing it.

Resting in Him,
Clete

I would quite agree with you. The whole reason this world is not completely random is some kind of moral order felt by people who makes them do things that are NOT completely selfish. I also think that morality comes from God. Man has certainly altered it and modified it, but the impulse was there for some moral energy injected into the system.
 

Soulman

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Balder:
You would not even be able to conceive of "randomness" and disorder if you did not also perceive order in the world.
It’s not necessary to postulate systems of “pure order” and “pure randomness” and pit them against each other. Is there “regularity” in the world? Of course. My slippers are (almost) always right where I left them. Yet, it is perfectly feasible that the predictability and regularity and orderliness of our worlds could be instantly shattered by a random, unforeseen, unpredictable event. Like a serial slipper mover -- or a drive by shooting. How are random events to be explained? Either random events are not as “random” as we think they are, or what we perceive as random events are, in reality, deliberate acts of God.

Since we are “part” of the order of the world in which we live, the world should appear “orderly” -- to us. If you could step back, out of the space-time continuum (hate that phrase), and see the conception and unfolding of the universe as a time-lapse sequence compressed into the “time space” of a few “earth seconds,” what would you perceive? An orderly, safe, predictable universe? Or an incoherent, dangerous riot of “random” fireball energy and matter literally exploding into the void? Are the “rules of logic” imposed upon man by God from above? Or, Are the rules of logic imposed on the universe by man from below? One explanation seems as “likely” as the other.
 

Chileice

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Originally posted by Soulman

If by “good” you mean “good deeds” done on behalf of others, nothing more is needed than pure selfishness. People “do good” for reasons as crass as assuaging “guilt” or for reasons as mundane as making themselves “feel” good. If by “good” you mean sunlight and rain and food and shelter and health and the love of our children, it would appear that “good” is distributed in a very haphazard manner with no discernable pattern of “logical coherence.”

Randomness explains "good" -- or a tragedy -- as well as ”the providence of God” -- with a lot less fuss.

Frankly, I mean both. But mostly I am pointing toward the former. I do NOT think selfishness can explain good behaviour. Even your word "guilt" implies some "morality" of some kind imposed on the system to keep it from falling to the lowest common denominator. I will grant you that selfishness is strong. It is the force that tries to disintegrate people and relationships and drive them to the ultimate every-man for-himself mentality.

John 1 sheds an intersting light on this for those of us who have faith:

5 That light shines in the darkness,
yet the darkness did not overcome[12] it. --HCSB

5 And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend[1] it. --NKJV

[12] l 1:5 Or grasp, or comprehend, or overtake; Jn 12:35
[1] 1:5 Or overcome

The word used in Greek means both to overcome and to comprehend. I think it was a word which aptly describes this world's relationship with God. It neither comprehends him nor can it overcome him. Jesus keeps shining in spite of all His detractors and inspite of the human propensity to spiral downward. I do believe faith is needed to explain the "problem of good" which your random universe theory avoids. Selfishness will never truly explain selflessness.
 

Soulman

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Clete,
Good and evil both presuppose a standard that would not exist without there being a God. In a "random" universe, morality could not exist.

This is a conclusion driven by your presuppositions about God and morality and the “meaning” of the universe. You need look no further for the standard you speak of than -- you. The universe could conceivably be a “moral vacuum,” with concepts of right and wrong imposed on the universe from below. I can think of no objective “test” to demonstrate the validity of a universal standard of morality imposed upon man from above.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Soulman

Clete,

This is a conclusion driven by your presuppositions about God and morality and the “meaning” of the universe. You need look no further for the standard you speak of than -- you. The universe could conceivably be a “moral vacuum,” with concepts of right and wrong imposed on the universe from below. I can think of no objective “test” to demonstrate the validity of a universal standard of morality imposed upon man from above.

ME! Are you nuts? What if I was a maniac and came and took your house by force and turned your daughter into my personal sex slave because I thought that it would serve my self-interest? Would you say that since my standard is “me” and that since the actions served my self-interests that the action was morally right?

Fair warning…

You are crazy if you say “yes”!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Soulman

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Clete:
ME! Are you nuts? What if I was a maniac and came and took your house by force and turned your daughter into my personal sex slave because I thought that it would serve my self-interest? Would you say that since my standard is “me” and that since the actions served my self-interests that the action was morally right?
Molesting my daughter may be morally right to a maniac, but that doesn’t make it morally right for my daughter, or society at large. The maniac’s private “moral compass” is not the last word. Unless he happens to live in a universe where violating the human dignity of others is acceptable behavior, his behavior will be “limited.” Whether an absolute standard for morality exists or not, it cannot PREVENT a “maniac” from hurting others, so the result is the same, and that’s all that matters. Molesting my daughter, however, is not a “random event,” like being struck by lightning, or a stray bullet. The maniac might be selecting his victims “at random,” but the molestation itself is a deliberate, self-willed, avoidable act. Being struck by lightning or a stray bullet “just happens” -- randomly, without “reason,” and always without the extra baggage of moral justification. Only Christian apologists need to morally “justify” stray bullets and lightning strikes as “the will of God.”

If you were to sexually molest one of my three daughters, whether you attempted to justify your actions as morally “right” or “wrong” is immaterial. No more justification than the “law of the jungle” is needed to explain why theft and rape and acts of violence are “socially unacceptable” in a naturalistic, non-theistic universe. As a practical matter, punishing, and therefore discouraging, mayhem promotes the health and well-being of society. Survival is its own “moral” justification.

If the survival of the species, the well-being and approval of society, and the threat of imminent punishment in this world will not prevent you (or some other maniac) from molesting my daughter, how will otherworldly “moral absolutes” help her, or discourage you? Do you need an absolute “moral code” to tell you that molesting someone’s daughter is not in her best interests, society’s interests, or your own? Do you need to consult “the manual” before protecting your daughter from a maniac? Is survival a "moral dilemma"?
 

Hilston

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Balder writes:Hilston,


quote:
So if you will indulge me, I wish to ask you more general questions in light of my (admittedly inadequate) understanding of Buddhism.

That's a good idea. That's why I gave you a concise statement why I believed Buddhism provided the foundations for a coherent worldview and met all the standards of validity which you believe apply exclusively to Christianity -- I thought we could build on those few key claims.
The plan sounds good, but it just doesn't pan out. When you gave explanations, I asked for clarifications on things I didn't understand. Then I couldn't understand your explanations without further explanation, which I also couldn't understand. It's horribly uninviting and discouraging to make an effort toward understanding something, only to be hamstrung time and again by a deeper and deeper quagmire (or so it seems) of alien terminology, invented words, syntactic acrobatics, and Tibetan guru-speak. How am I to tell the difference between what you say and the words of someone who is not being honest, but just trying to jack me around to try to prove me wrong. I've said it before, and I'll say it again because I'm earnestly interested if you can disprove this. How do I know that all of this is nothing more than your own obsession with trying to dissect obscure ramblings of some ancient writings and to find warm-and-fuzzy "enlightenment" by shoehorning modern scientific explanations into Dzogchen, not unlike how modern interpreters try to eisogete Nostradamus as a foreteller of modern events?

Hilston wrote: I know aspects of the true logical system insofar as I understand what the Bible has to say about logic, by description and by example. I'm no logician, but I have a basic understanding. I'm also familiar with some of the human corruptions of logic.

...The true logical system is both demonstrated and affirmed in the Judeo-Christian Bible. My knowledge of the general reliability of my logical processes is based on faith in the Judeo-Christian Bible. Of course, my initial use of logic, prior to my introduction to the Bible, came quite naturally, as it does with most everyone. However, my later encounters with the teachings of the Bible explained to me the nearly universal recognition and/or use of the laws of logic.


Balder writes:
If you know the "true logical system" only partially, and largely by faith, how are you able to ascertain which human systems of logic are corruptions of a logical system which is admittedly opaque to you?
You misunderstand. First, I'm not a logician; that doesn't mean I do not use logic successfully. Most people use logic successfully and have never had a class on advanced logic. Second, my knowledge of logic is not "largely on faith." As I said, I knew and understood the use of logic prior to my introduction to the Bible. My trust and certainty in logic is ultimately based on faith, but my understanding, use, and application of it preceded faith in Christ and the Bible. And Third, my faith in Christ and the Bible enables me to make sweeping and general claims (such as "no other worldview can account for the intelligibility of human experience" and "the true logical system is both demonstrated and affirmed in the J-C Bible") because I appeal to an Authority Who makes that claim. That does not absolve me from having to demonstrate it, but I can confidently take that as my starting point because my Authority has given that direction and instruction.

Balder writes:
When you write, "My knowledge of the general reliability of my logical processes is based on faith in the Judeo-Christian Bible," I pick up on a (perhaps unintentional) sleight-of-hand. What you really are saying is that you have faith in the general reliability of your senses based on your faith in the reliability of the Biblical witness. Because if the structure of the whole rests not on direct knowledge but on faith, then the specific items which you claim are supported by that structure cannot be known more absolutely and with more surety than the supporting structure itself.
No, knowledge based on faith is still knowledge. The question is whether or not that knowledge can be certain, and that depends on the verity of what one's faith is based upon. My certainty of knowledge is based on the Judeo-Christian faith, which is objective faith in the Person of Christ. I knew how to use logic before I had faith in Christ, but if someone were to press me on my certainty in that knowledge, I would be left with a blind faith commitment to my own experience, which is hardly reliable apart from some assured grounding of it. David Hume is excellent on this point, and remains unanswered by anti- or non-biblical philosophers.

Balder writes:
You say that the Judeo-Christian Bible demonstrates and affirms the "true logical system." I have several questions about this claim. We've ascertained that you're not sure about all of the particulars of the "true logical system," ...
I can be sure that all the particulars are accounted for, whether or not I have the personal ability to articulate the details thereof. Just as I can be sure that no other system of thought apart from the Biblical worldview can account for reality, even if I have personally never encountered every other system of thought.

Balder writes:
... but you have faith that what is recorded in the Bible definitely reflects aspects of it. First off, how do you know this?
I know because of regeneration. When my dead spirit was made alive at regeneration, God's Spirit gave to me the gift of faith and certitude regarding the Judeo-Christian Bible.

Balder writes:
How do you know the Bible reflects parts of an entity which is unknown to you, at least in its full expression?
Same answer as immediately above.

Balder writes:
Aren't you really saying that, based on your faith in the Bible, you have faith that whatever logical elements show up in the Bible must be "parts" of the true system of logic?
Sure, you can put it that way. But it's much more complete than your characterization of it. Look at it this way: The Bible, rightly understood, describes reality in a way that comports with my daily experience. With a priori faith in the verity of the Bible, I then compare its claims to my personal experience and I see congruity and verification. Therefore I conclude that my personal experience must be generally trustworthy and reliable. If, hypothetically speaking, my personal experience did not line up with scripture, then my a priori faith in scripture would tell me that something is wrong with me, not scripture. Schizophrenic and alcoholic believers may have to deal with this more often than those who do not have these debilitating conditions.

Balder writes:
I've read the Bible front to back, and I do not recall many overt claims about logic, laws of logic, the necessary foundations for logic, and so on.
The very language of scripture already assumes it. The claims of miracles assumes logical inference and the uniformity of nature, otherwise, miracles would not be called miracles. The scriptures ask the reader to make inferences on all sorts of levels. The scriptures ask the reader to observe events, natural phenomena, properties of nature, etc., and to draw conclusions therefrom. If the Bible is God's inerrant and infallible Word, and if the language used by God affirms my own understanding of language and logic, then I have sufficient grounding for my use of logic. The Son of God is called the "Logos," the Word, the articulation of God's decrees. Creation reflects aspects of the Creator's nature and character. In a sense, the created order is a manifestation of aspects of the Logos, God decreed creation, and because God is logical, so is the universe He created and the laws that govern it.

Balder writes:
Admittedly it's been at least 10 years since I read the Bible all the way through, so my memory may be failing me; can you point me to direct, clear Biblical teachings on logic? I have no problem believing that the Bible affirms and demonstrates logic, but that feature is certainly not unique to the Bible.
That is true. My high school geometry book affirmed and demonstrated logic. But even Archimedes understood the problem of geometry sans a grounding of the concepts he developed. He lamented not having a pou sto, or a locus standi, a ledge or fulcrum at which ground his lever. And that's what makes the Bible unique. The existence of God provides the ledge or fulcrum by which one can "move the world," that is, ground one's knowledge. Without it, there is only blind faith and knowledge floating in the void.

Balder writes:
I would dare say that most human documents at least implicitly affirm and demonstrate logic, if only because logic is a feature (but not the only feature) of human communication and thus human texts.
I fully agree.

Balder writes:
Is there something about the Bible's affirmation and demonstration of logic that sets it in a league of its own, as the exemplar and in fact the necessary foundation of logic itself?
Yes, and that is the fact that the Bible claims to be God's inerrant and infallible Word. Add to that the fact that those who are regenerated to faith in the Author of that book by the very same Author further affirms its uniqueness and declares it to the world.

Balder writes:
You may have read some of my correspondence with Clete and others on the "Religion is Obsolete" thread. I'm interested in your thoughts: if the Bible is indeed the ultimate source and foundation for logic and truth, forming the presuppositional bedrock for all valid forms of knowledge, how do you account for the fact that the Bible presupposes an outmoded, mythological, and factually incorrect cosmology as the backdrop of its narrative?
That's incorrect. It doesn't presuppose that at all. For example, the narrative of the Zodiac preceded the documentation of the Torah. Abel understood the right sacrifice God required by that which was taught to him in the Zodiac. Abraham understood the message of the Coming One in the constellations as well. This is an example of how critics take their own presuppositions, e.g. that ancients were "primitive" and cosmologically ignorant, and impose them upon the text to draw convenient dismissive conclusions. The biblical view is that the ancients were quite advanced in their understanding of these things and that anything that appears to be "primitive" or cosmologically incorrect is actually figurative language that was familiar, meaningful and unambiguous to the original audience.

More to come.

Cheers.
 

Clete

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So4dm*n,

I rjfuse t0 enga46e in * c234ersem5ion wi^h s^m%ne w^o can$$t emmla#n to m) w46t is wr23g wjwh tois seqjepce or w7y it i$ s233l re48qble.

R3s3*5g ip Him,
C*!:e
 
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Clete

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Jim,

Your last post was excellent! That point about Archimedes and his absent fulcrum was brilliant!

Keep em coming!
 

Balder

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Jim,

Your last post was excellent! That point about Archimedes and his absent fulcrum was brilliant!

Keep em coming!

Hey, no fair. Hilston gets a cheerleader!

Hilston, I apologize for being slow. As I told BCK on another thread, I'm in the middle of writing several large papers so my time is more limited than usual. If you have another installment ready, please post it and I'll respond to both posts together in a few days.

Peace,
Balder
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

So4dm*n,

I rjfuse t0 enga46e in * c234ersem5ion wi^h s^m%ne w^o can$$t emmla#n to m) w46t is wr23g wjwh tois seqjepce or w7y it i$ s233l re48qble.

R3s3*5g ip Him,
C*!:e

What, no response?!! :confused:
 

Soulman

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No answer IS an answer. How am I supposed to reply to something like that??? If that's all the mileage you can get out of the points I've attempted to make, if that's as seriously as you can take an opposing point of view, then I accept responsibility for my "logical incoherece" and will leave it at that. This is your thread and I interpreted your reply as "get lost." If you have no interest in responding to my questions, or using my questions, however idiotic they may seem to you, as stepping off points for further discussion, then we are not dialoging, we are monologing. Not what I had in mind.

Keep working on that "technique."
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Soulman

No answer IS an answer. How am I supposed to reply to something like that??? If that's all the mileage you can get out of the points I've attempted to make, if that's as seriously as you can take an opposing point of view, then I accept responsibility for my "logical incoherece" and will leave it at that. This is your thread and I interpreted your reply as "get lost." If you have no interest in responding to my questions, or using my questions, however idiotic they may seem to you, as stepping off points for further discussion, then we are not dialoging, we are monologing. Not what I had in mind.

Keep working on that "technique."

Good greif man! You really should lighten up a little. I did not intend it as a "get lost" at all! I guess I should have simply asked what you thought was wrong with the sentence and why you thought it was still readable. The "I'm not interesting..." part was a poor choice of words, it way overstated things. The fact is, I am interested in talking about it, that's what the whole thread is about.

So if you are willing to continue perhaps you could attempt to explain why that sentence is fowled up (besides my poor choice of words) and also why it is that you were still able to figure out what it said in light of your proposed inately logically incoherent universe.

I'll look forward to your response.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Clete

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Originally posted by Hilston
Without regeneration as the impetus for embracing the verity of the Scriptures you're left with evidentialism.

Why?

Where's the connection exactly? I don't understand how a removal of the regeneration doctrine (as I understand it) leads inescapably to evidentialism. And if it did, why would that be such a big deal? Perhaps it would be wise to start by clarifying what exactly you mean by regeneration.

Also, you may have done so to some degree already but would you mind responding further to
post 135? (In particular, the last paragraph of that post).

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Balder

New member
Hilston,

I haven't finished responding to all of your last letter, and I think you have more forthcoming as well, but I'll post what I have for now.

Hilston wrote:
So if you will indulge me, I wish to ask you more general questions in light of my (admittedly inadequate) understanding of Buddhism.

Balder said:
That's a good idea. That's why I gave you a concise statement why I believed Buddhism provided the foundations for a coherent worldview and met all the standards of validity which you believe apply exclusively to Christianity -- I thought we could build on those few key claims.


Hilston replied:
The plan sounds good, but it just doesn't pan out. When you gave explanations, I asked for clarifications on things I didn't understand. Then I couldn't understand your explanations without further explanation, which I also couldn't understand.

Maybe your presuppositions are getting in the way. Sometimes they have to be suspended, though not necessarily forsaken, to understand where another person is coming from.

Hilston said:
It's horribly uninviting and discouraging to make an effort toward understanding something, only to be hamstrung time and again by a deeper and deeper quagmire (or so it seems) of alien terminology, invented words, syntactic acrobatics, and Tibetan guru-speak.

Come on, now. I've been trying. I think you'll find my last several posts to you to be relatively short on Guentherese. At least you are still saying "or so it seems"; maybe I can clear up some of the confusion in coming letters.

Hilston then asked uncharitably:
How am I to tell the difference between what you say and the words of someone who is not being honest, but just trying to jack me around to try to prove me wrong. I've said it before, and I'll say it again because I'm earnestly interested if you can disprove this. How do I know that all of this is nothing more than your own obsession with trying to dissect obscure ramblings of some ancient writings and to find warm-and-fuzzy "enlightenment" by shoehorning modern scientific explanations into Dzogchen, not unlike how modern interpreters try to eisogete Nostradamus as a foreteller of modern events?

Since a few paragraphs later you use astrology to support the supposed scientific knowledge of the writers of the Bible, I think you should think twice about telling others that they are trying to "shoehorn" science into an outmoded worldview or are on par with Nostradamus supporters! Honestly, I'm not sure how to answer your question; I am definitely doing my best to answer your questions honestly and in a straightforward manner. How do I know that you aren't obsessed or dishonest or deluded or whatever? How are you to prove that? Why don't we just give each other a fair listen for starters.

Balder wrote:
If you know the "true logical system" only partially, and largely by faith, how are you able to ascertain which human systems of logic are corruptions of a logical system which is admittedly opaque to you?


Hilston responded:
You misunderstand. First, I'm not a logician; that doesn't mean I do not use logic successfully. Most people use logic successfully and have never had a class on advanced logic. Second, my knowledge of logic is not "largely on faith." As I said, I knew and understood the use of logic prior to my introduction to the Bible. My trust and certainty in logic is ultimately based on faith, but my understanding, use, and application of it preceded faith in Christ and the Bible. And Third, my faith in Christ and the Bible enables me to make sweeping and general claims (such as "no other worldview can account for the intelligibility of human experience" and "the true logical system is both demonstrated and affirmed in the J-C Bible") because I appeal to an Authority Who makes that claim. That does not absolve me from having to demonstrate it, but I can confidently take that as my starting point because my Authority has given that direction and instruction.

The point I am making is that you believe there is a perfect logical system, but you do not know it directly. You conclude that it must exist because the fallible human logical inferences and deductions you make nevertheless appear to be generally reliable, but you do not know it in itself; it is an object of faith, like the God of which you believe it is a part. Your understanding, use, and application of logic that preceded your knowledge of the Bible are all based on your exposure to human systems of logic -- linear, grammatical, etc. You suggest that the Bible supports your use of logic in a way that no other worldview can, but you haven't demonstrated this yet, beyond making an appeal to the authority you attribute to the Bible. But you haven't demonstrated the logical superiority of the Christian worldview, or proven why the Bible of necessity must be the only valid source of knowledge. Certainly there are other worldviews as well that similarly claim to account for the existence of orderliness and logical structure in the universe...and this, of course, is one of the focuses of this conversation.

Hilston wrote:
[K]nowledge based on faith is still knowledge. The question is whether or not that knowledge can be certain, and that depends on the verity of what one's faith is based upon. My certainty of knowledge is based on the Judeo-Christian faith, which is objective faith in the Person of Christ. I knew how to use logic before I had faith in Christ, but if someone were to press me on my certainty in that knowledge, I would be left with a blind faith commitment to my own experience, which is hardly reliable apart from some assured grounding of it. David Hume is excellent on this point, and remains unanswered by anti- or non-biblical philosophers.

Two questions:

1) What do you mean by "objective faith" in the Person of Christ? Are you just using that word to give your claim more weight and apparent authority, or do you mean something specific by it that is objectively demonstrable? Do you just mean that it is an objective fact that you have faith in Christ?
2) How is your certainty in the existence of a logical God less of a blind faith commitment than your previous faith in the verity of logic itself? (I'm not saying that belief in God is necessarily "blind," but rather asking you to clarify the differences between the two positions, as you see them.)

Peace,
Balder
 

Soulman

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Clete, glanced at it, didn’t bother trying to “decipher” it. :rolleyes:

You can insist that logical coherence is only “possible” in a biblical worldview, but first you must eliminate all possible “naturalistic” explanations; otherwise, you're only pontificating.

For the sake of argument, let’s say that an absolute standard IS necessary to account for the “logical coherence” you see (or think you see). It doesn’t follow that since an absolute standard is “necessary,” that the absolute standard MUST be “metaphysical.”

Why is a “theistic” explanation NECESSARY to explain how you’re able to read what I’m writing, or know that molesting someone’s daughter is not in the victim’s interest, society’s interest, or your own?
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Soulman

Clete, glanced at it, didn’t bother trying to “decipher” it. :rolleyes:

You can insist that logical coherence is only “possible” in a biblical worldview, but first you must eliminate all possible “naturalistic” explanations; otherwise, you're only pontificating.

For the sake of argument, let’s say that an absolute standard IS necessary to account for the “logical coherence” you see (or think you see). It doesn’t follow that since an absolute standard is “necessary,” that the absolute standard MUST be “metaphysical.”

Why is a “theistic” explanation NECESSARY to explain how you’re able to read what I’m writing, or know that molesting someone’s daughter is not in the victim’s interest, society’s interest, or your own?
Because logic cannot be explained at all in a naturalistic universe. You will inevitably 'beg the question' if you try. The only possible way one can have a logically coherent worldview is to presuppose the existence of a God who is intelligent, logical, able to communicate, etc. who created this universe.

This might seem too simple an argument to be satisfying but that is basically it, in a nutshell. The actually fact of the matter is that you really couldn't have picked a better idea to bring up that what you did. Your suggestion that the universe could be innately incoherent is, in point of fact, no more logically incoherent than any other worldview other than the Christian one. It is more obviously incoherent but a woman who is 8 months pregnant is more obviously pregnant than one who is only two days pregnant but neither is more pregnant than the other. A worldview either breaks down into logical incoherence or it does not. The Christian worldview does not, every other one does.
You will no doubt be thinking that I couldn't possibly know that every other worldview breaks down because I have not been presented with every other worldview and of course you are correct in that I haven't studied every worldview that exists nor do I intend to do so. It wouldn't make any difference how many of them I studied the result would be the same. I would know that Christianity in logically coherent and that no other could make such a claim and you would deny my ability to make that claim. The point being that I know of no way of proving a universal negative, if you find a way to do such a thing you let me know and I'll accompany you to the Pulitzer prize ceremony. Until such time as that happens however, you have now in one hand an admittedly incoherent worldview, and in the other, one which is totally logical in every respect which proves, by the way, that the world is not innately incoherent. If it were, the formulation of a logically coherent worldview would be utterly impossible. The question is what will you do now? Which will you choose? Will you cling to incoherence or will you discard it in favor of a ration worldview?

"I call heaven and earth as witnesses today against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing; therefore choose life, that both you and your descendants may live; that you may love the Lord your God, that you may obey His voice, and that you may cling to Him, for He is your life and the length of your days"

Resting in Him,
Clete

P.S. No time for editting! If I haven't been clear on a particular point let me know and I'll clarify. Thanks!
 

Soulman

BANNED
Banned
Clete:
Because logic cannot be explained at all in a naturalistic universe. You will inevitably 'beg the question' if you try. The only possible way one can have a logically coherent worldview is to presuppose the existence of a God who is intelligent, logical, able to communicate, etc. who created this universe.

Like Hilston, we are not professional logicians, but you seem to be asserting what remains to be demonstrated. I don’t recall asking you to concede any point, assuming that’s why you left the bread crumbs. I’m asking why the “invisible hand” or organizing principle of logic must by necessity be metaphysical. Your answer? Because the alternative is impossible. Would I be begging the question to ask how it follows that the invisible hand of logic must by necessity be metaphysical? Am I begging the question to ask how it follows that logic is “impossible” anywhere other than in the “biblical” worldview? If so, please show how.

I’m by no means an expert, but might your position be expressed as:

The universe is logically coherent.
A logically coherent universe is impossible without a logically coherent Creator.
Therefore, there must be a logically coherent Creator.

Express it any way you’d like.

You are making the claim here. I am not “defending” or promoting “radomist subjectivist sun worship,” or claiming that I’m right and everyone else is wrong. As a “subjectivist randomist sun worshipper,” I concede that the “theistic” explanation remains “possible” until proven otherwise (of course, it cannot be). You simply haven’t used the tools God gave you to prove it. Present the irreducible logic of your case. Prove you are right without merely saying so. If the biblical worldview truly is the only “logically coherent” worldview, it should be no problem to settle the matter and prove it logically and coherently true without “trumping” the argument by playing the theological “wildcard” of “divine revelation.” If that’s all you’ve got, you’re bluffing.
 
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