Dear Jaltus:
You also cannot take 1 definition without considering the other.
Agreed so why did
you do exactly that?? My original post contained both definitions (i.e. the word means either just as legitimately) and you culled it down to the one that suited you. I merely brought up the part you skipped. Here again is the entire definition:
Here is the dictionary definition of “lie”:
1. A false statement deliberately presented as being true; a falsehood.
2. Something meant to deceive or give a wrong impression.
(The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition)
And again, here is one which is exactly what I have been saying all along:
To utter falsehood with an intention to deceive; to say or do that which is intended to deceive another, when he a right to know the truth, or when morality requires a just representation. (Webster's Revised
Unabridged Dictionary, © 1996, 1998 MICRA, Inc.)
Thus to lie encompases
both deception by falsehood and deception by truth. It is the intention to deceive that makes it a lie.
Can you really say with a straight face that it is always morally permissible to deceive someone as long as you manipulate a true statement to do so?? Come on now!!!
What this amounts to is that I am willing and able to take both definitions of lying and be happy with either, whereas you MUST be stuck with only the second one.
On what planet?? You cannot take the second one of either selection for they define using a truth to deceive as lying.
I have stated TIME AND AGAIN without refutation that neither the midwives nor Rahab were praised for their lies, only for their FAITH. You have yet to prove your erronious assumption. I have also argued that the midwives did in fact not lie, something nobody has seen fit to respond to other than to agree or nuance.
That is not accurate for I have refuted that statement, and since this comment Knight has refuted it once again. But hey that old nag is still kicking, so let’s drag out the bats….
First your claim that the midwives did not lie…..
Then the king of Egypt spoke to the Hebrew midwives, of whom the name of one was Shiphrah and the name of the other Puah; and he said, “When you do the duties of a midwife for the Hebrew women, and see them on the birthstools, if it is a son, then you shall kill him; but if it is a daughter, then she shall live.” But the midwives feared God, and did not do as the king of Egypt commanded them, but saved the male children alive. So the king of Egypt called for the midwives and said to them, “Why have you done this thing, and saved the male children alive?” And the midwives said to Pharaoh, “Because the Hebrew women are not like the Egyptian women; for they are lively and give birth before the midwives come to them.” Therefore God dealt well with the midwives, and the people multiplied and grew very mighty. And so it was, because the midwives feared God, that He provided households for them.
First taking your erroneous limitation on the definition of lying (which I have already disproven above), they are still lying. The text tells us WHY the midwives did not follow the orders…. Because they feared God. Yet when the king asked them WHY they did not kill the babies, they said because the Hebrew woman were fast droppers. That is not why they did not do it, the text says that. So they told a FALSEHOOD.
I will also point out YET AGAIN that the midwives did not necessarily state an untruth. It could very well be that sometimes the Hebrews gave birth early. NOTHING IN THE STORY SAYS IT WAS A LIE.
Man, Slick Willie would be so proud. The king commanded ALL the Hebrew male babies to be killed and wanted to know why this was not done. The context is ALL, not some, not sometimes, not could be. The midwives answered that they could not do it because the woman delivered early…. Not some of the woman, but in context ALL the women. He is asking why ALL of the male children were spared alive, and their answer is simply not true.
As for Clinton, he lied because what he did can be categorized as a form of intercourse. He told an untruth.
His lawyers who are masters of splitting hairs between a false statement and technically true one disagree with you Jaltus. If for arguments sake the word does technically refer only to the official sex act, would he have been morally wrong in making that statement??
As for Lev 19:11, it says do not deceive one another, and thus would be limited to the covenant community, as far as I can tell. I agree that you treat the covenant community different than the non-covenant community.
Oh no, someone will have to go and retrieve Hank from orbit. Are you saying Jaltus that the imperative not to deceive is
relative to the people involved??? Are you then saying that believers cannot deceive each other with truth, but that we are allowed to deceive nonbelievers with truth?? Are you feeling okay?? Are you that desparate to win this argument?? That sounds like a great witness to an unbelieving world. What happened to abstaining from every appearance of evil?? What happened to letting your light so shine before men?? This cannot possibly seem like a good answer to you Jaltus.
But is that even what the verse says?? Nope. Let’s look at some different translations shall we??
Lev 19:11
(ASV) Ye shall not steal; neither shall ye deal falsely, nor lie one to another.
(CEV) Do not steal or tell lies or cheat others.
(GNB) "Do not steal or cheat or lie.
(GW) "Never steal, lie, or deceive your neighbor.
(ISV)
(KJV) Ye shall not steal, neither deal falsely, neither lie one to another.
(KJV+) Ye shall not3808 steal,1589 neither3808 deal falsely,3584 neither3808 lie8266 one376 to another.5997
(LITV) You shall not steal nor lie, nor deceive to one another.
(MKJV) You shall not steal, nor lie, nor be deceitful to one another.
It is obvious that ALL three imperatives there (lying, deceiving, and stealing) are ALL modified by the phrase “one another.” So Jaltus, can we steal from unbelievers too??
This is all I have time for tonight.. more later.