geoff
New member
AJ:
*sigh*
No, its an example of a 'good' moral decision. A 'perfect' moral decision would entail you knowing all the ramifications past present and future of your actions.
What on earth has consistancy got to do with it? Consistancy doesnt make the difference between 'good' and 'perfect'. Anyone can make constantly good moral choices, however only God can make perfect moral choices.
No, I havent said that consistant means perfect, I have argued all the time that perfect moral choice requires perfect/complete knowledge.
I am doubtful that a dictionary would be sufficient to describe a philosophical term.
Ah right. But the same criticism doesnt apply to you?
Here endeth the discussion. I dont have time for this stuff anymore.
Right, you’ve already stated that you think there is a difference, the question is whether there is any reason to take you seriously, or are you just blowing smoke.
*sigh*
This would be an excellent example of why I stated earlier that all correct moral decisions are perfect.
No, its an example of a 'good' moral decision. A 'perfect' moral decision would entail you knowing all the ramifications past present and future of your actions.
If this is what you mean by perfect (and I have serious doubts that you actually know what you mean), then I would say that men make correct moral decisions all the time, and they do not need foreknowledge to do so. Therefore it stands to reason that God could make perfect moral decisions without foreknowledge either, since the only difference between the two is consistency.
What on earth has consistancy got to do with it? Consistancy doesnt make the difference between 'good' and 'perfect'. Anyone can make constantly good moral choices, however only God can make perfect moral choices.
I think I’ve already covered why this is wrong, but I’d like to point out the inconsistency of your argument. In one sentence you say you agree with me, and that “perfect” means consistently making the right choice, and in the next you use the singular “a perfect moral decision” as if you misled earlier when stating the reason for your distinction.
No, I havent said that consistant means perfect, I have argued all the time that perfect moral choice requires perfect/complete knowledge.
I know that most dictionarys would only describe it as universal knowledge, and I am doubtful that any dictionary would define the word that it must include foreknowledge.
I am doubtful that a dictionary would be sufficient to describe a philosophical term.
You are the one claiming distinctions that do not seem to exist without any proof. Then, as if you are totally clueless of any rules of logic, make the absurd claim that people must prove your wild assertion wrong BEFORE you've offered any proof for it.
Ah right. But the same criticism doesnt apply to you?
Here endeth the discussion. I dont have time for this stuff anymore.