An open challenge to all closed theists

Swordsman

New member
Originally posted by Yorzhik

Are you sure? Let's try it:

Jonah 3:5, 10; 4:1-2
So the people of Nineveh believed God, proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest to the least of them. . . . Then God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God did not change His mind from the disaster that He had said He would bring upon them, and He did not do it.

Does that work? Can you replace the bolded words with something better (without using the words "repented" or "relented"?

It looks to me that Z Man was clear in his statement

Originally posted by Z Man
God repenting does not change who He is; good, we agree on that. Does it mean that God has changed His mind? I don't believe so. Again, I'll use the Ninevites as an example. If they had not repented, yet God repented from destroying them, then yes, God could be said to change His mind. But that's not the case; Ninevah repented, thus God no longer needed to threaten them. God's threat of destroying Ninevah is what led to their repentance; it was all planned by God. He knew that threatening to destroy them would cause them to repent; that's why He sent Jonah.

Why is it thrilling to read into those passage that "God changed?" Its merely an assumption to one who thinks the Almighty God changes because His creation forced Him to.

This is the fundamental problem in open theism: It raises man's sovereignty so much, that God's qualities and attributes must be lessened; namely, God is not all knowing.
 

Yorzhik

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Swordsman,

Jonah 3:5, 10; 4:1-2
So the people of Nineveh believed God, proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest to the least of them. . . . Then God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God did not change His mind from the disaster that He had said He would bring upon them, and He did not do it.

Can you replace the bolded words with something better (without using the words "repented" or "relented"?
 

Swordsman

New member
Originally posted by Yorzhik

Swordsman,

Jonah 3:5, 10; 4:1-2
So the people of Nineveh believed God, proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest to the least of them. . . . Then God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God did not change His mind from the disaster that He had said He would bring upon them, and He did not do it.

Can you replace the bolded words with something better (without using the words "repented" or "relented"?

I sense sarcasm here. But I'll play along.

Actually from the Greek, relent can mean to show mercy.

Praytell, what is the meaning behind all of this? Serving a god who is humanistic in his attributes. When God wrote this program called "human nature" did he have some defects in his code? According to open theism, he did, and still does.
 

Yorzhik

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
S, No sacasm. Just trying to find a way to get a CV person to say what the figure means.

As you already read, figures in written speech (spoken speech as well, of course) mean something other than what the words mean literally.

For instance, when a person "burns a favor", they don't actually start a fire. Then what does it mean to "burn a favor"? It means to get something done by someone else that owes you. And when that work is done, you cannot ask them to do it again, because their debt is paid and the opportunity to ask for the debt to be paid is gone - like wood is gone after it is burned.

So that is all. No tricks. Since God did not really repent/relent/show mercy in Jonah 3:10, what does[/q] the figure mean?
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Yorzhik

Are you sure? Let's try it:

Jonah 3:5, 10; 4:1-2
So the people of Nineveh believed God, proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest to the least of them. . . . Then God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God did not change His mind from the disaster that He had said He would bring upon them, and He did not do it.

Does that work? Can you replace the bolded words with something better (without using the words "repented" or "relented"?
If one does not dive deeper into this study, and reads this verse and takes it as it is, then of course one could assume that God changes His mind based on human actions. But that's not the case. Let me explain, again.

If Ninevah had repented, yet God destroyed them anyway, then He wouldn't be the God of mercy that we know; the same God who sacrificed His own Son for our sins. Throughout the Bible, we are told of a God who is patient and merciful. Jonah said it himself:

Jonah 4:1-2
So [Jonah] prayed to the Lord, and said, "Ah, Lord, was not this what I said when I was still in my country? Therefore I fled previously to Tarshish; for I know that You are a gracious and merciful God, slow to anger and abundant in lovingkindness, One who relents from doing harm.

If God's orginal intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah? Jonah knew that the reason he was sent by God to Ninevah was so that they would repent after hearing the Word of God through him. God was never going to destroy Ninevah; He threatened them, and that threat is what led them to repent. That's why God threatened them - so they would repent. That was His purpose; that was what was ordained. Therefore, God repenting from His threat against Ninevah wasn't something that surprised Him, or had not orginally planned on doing. He didn't change His mind. If He had, then He would have never let that fish spit Jonah out on dry land - He would of made sure that Jonah never made it to the city.
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Yorzhik

Since God did not really repent/relent/show mercy in Jonah 3:10, what does[/q] the figure mean?

Oh, He repented/relented/showed mercy to the Ninevites alright. But it wasn't something He had not orginally planned. It didn't surprise Him that the Ninevites repented...
 

1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
Yorzhik - ! Wow, what an ordeal you must have went through. I was not so sure about your position and was going to edit my post about assuming that you well understand my views, but I see no need to do that now. :) It’s good to have you aboard.

The open view and the closed view issue does seem to easily brake fellowship over it, but with Christ’s leading, hopefully the friendships can be spared so much pain. I’d be very interested in hearing the info about that Rabbi proponent for the OV. I’ve heard that the CV did not come into vogue until folks like Augustine and such.

In much the same way that Protestantism was a new view and yet has been accepted as the correct view, it took a very long time to finally come into being! Same with the Open View. It is derived directly from scripture and directly refutes the false teaching of the CV.

Although many issues around the CV and OV debate have been separately discussed, like the following:

Classic immutability
man’s free will
causality and moral responsibility
God’s role in the final outcomes of events
Predestination
Foreknowledge
Divine repentance

It seems rather obvious that Christianity as a whole has not come to grips with both sides of the debate between the OV and the CV until recently, so if folks try to dismiss the view as heresy because it is “new”, then you have two wonderful retorts.

1 – So was Protestantism, yet it was biblical and true
2 – The history of Christianity does not show the Open and Closed view’s being brought to a clear confrontation until very recently.

So it’s not a case of re-inventing the wheel, it’s a case of the fact that Christianity has not arrived yet, there are still issues of faith that need further refining and the discovery of the OV and the CV is wonderful because now we have that much more opportunity to stand firmly and correctly on God’s word instead of errant manmade tradition!

The truth is better in the end. ... :)

Hedgehog, chuckles, pretty cool, he looks snug as a bug in a rug.
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
Originally posted by Z Man
If God's orginal intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah? Jonah knew that the reason he was sent by God to Ninevah was so that they would repent after hearing the Word of God through him. God was never going to destroy Ninevah; He threatened them, and that threat is what led them to repent. That's why God threatened them - so they would repent. That was His purpose; that was what was ordained. Therefore, God repenting from His threat against Ninevah wasn't something that surprised Him, or had not orginally planned on doing. He didn't change His mind. If He had, then He would have never let that fish spit Jonah out on dry land - He would of made sure that Jonah never made it to the city.

what if the people of ninevah had NOT repented? or did they HAVE to repent? was their repentence ordained?

was it God's will that Jonah run away from what he'd told him to do? that doesn't make very much sense now does it? why would God ordain that someone run away from what he wants done? that sure doesn't sound efficient to say the least.
 

1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
Yorzhik – Did you notice where Swordsman stopped his honest response? He gave an honest response that repentance can mean to show mercy, and you would immediate glance over at the text to see how that meaning would naturally fit in, AND LOW AND BEHOLD IT WOULD MEAN THAT GOD WITHELD SHOWING MERCY ...

Which is complete contradictory nonsense to what actually happened, but instead of Swordsman dealing with this fact with any personal integrity, he just ignores this specific fact immediately, and takes a general approach as though he had not nearly presented the full case of how he contradicts scripture by his errant manmade traditions.

They are not primarily very interested in their faith conforming to what the bible teaches, they are more interested in conforming their faith to manmade tradition, even if it plainly contradicts the bible.

And Z Man is saying that God knew the entire time that He would not do what He said He would do, yet he finds no lying in God for purposely contradicting the truth about the ENTIRE issue of His prophecy as God describes it even AFTER the fact of them repenting! If Z Man was right, then God would stop the charade of untruth and not say what He did in verse 10 and 4:2. It is this entire contextual consideration that people of the CV just can not or will not accept, and sadly, they constantly violate.

Last I checked it is not a “national disaster” nor doing “harm” when a nation repents and trusts God for their very lives. But evidently Z Man must think Nineveh’s repentance was really a national disaster and correlates to God bringing harm upon them! What a funny guy that Z Man is. Nice, fun loving, easy to get along with, but funny. ;)

I am way excited for you for taking the stance you have against the CV. I want to know more about what happened and how you and your family is doing in the mean time. This is making me even more sorry than I already am that I have been letting domestic issues overwhelm me. Since loosing my job the way I did I’ve felt like giving up, it is so painful, but I will not give up. Soon enough I will get a job and my back will be better and we’ll get together, no doubts.
 
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1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
G I T – It gets better than that. God was so much in control that He had the bible record the correlation of His prophetic judgment against Nineveh as being as follows
  1. A national disaster (3:10)
  2. To be brought upon them by His anger and not His lovingkindness (4:2)
  3. And Coincides with His intention of doing harm (4:2)
even AFTER the nation repented!!! So the reverse psychology bit does not wash out, it is refuted by the truth from scripture that does NOT make God out to being a liar as the CV seems to enjoy promoting.

Also, people like Z Man think that through the entire charade God was fibbing in order to trick them into having things turn out His way! When if the truth is that
if
everything always happens the way God wants it to happen,
then
He would have never keep compromising the truth and His own personal reputation as being truthful and honest an trustworthy just to perpetuate a purposeful lie! After they repented, if it was according to the way Z Man thinks it was, then God would have indicated that what happened was not according to His intended course of action towards national disaster, from his anger instead of His lovingkindness, and from His intention of bringing harm upon them! But the truth is, that is exactly how God’s word describes what did happen, so Z Man’s fabricated version is denied by scripture on the bases of contradiction and contextual violence.

(See my last post to Yorzhik for more of this posts point which directly relates to your post.)

I wonder if Z Man will actually deal with this bible fact that refutes his position, or if he will continue to ignore and violate what God has to say on the matter while teaching his manmade traditions instead.
 

1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
Z Man – If your right and God did as you said in order make it all happen the way He wanted it to happen, then why did God contradict you by saying that after the fact of Nineveh repenting, that His intentions towards Nineveh was to

  • bring national disaster (3:10)
  • from His anger and not lovingkindness (4:2)
  • and from His intention to do harm (4:2)

?

Or do you think that Nineveh’s godly righteous and truthful repentance was really a national disaster and correlates to God’s opposing anger and His intention of bringing harm upon them?

After God got His way with Nineveh and they trusted in Him, there would have been no reason to continue the lies, He could have simply correlated what happened as being completely in accordance to what He planned the entire time and that the harsh words worked great as a warning that actually did come to pass.

However, as we all know and as you seem to want to ignore, the opposite is true as indicated. So do you still maintain that God’s word was purposely not teaching the truth about what happened even after there was no need to oppose wickedness?!? Remember, every single contextual indicator about what honestly happened lends no credibility to your account of reverse psychology. The conditionality was within God, not His prophetic word, God’s word makes that perfectly clear.
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
do the ends justify the means? does a good outcome by a bad means justify those means? i think most people would say that they do. in that case, someone could lie for the sake of good ends and they would be justified.

just like if a man was hiding some jews in his house during WWII and a nazi came and knocked at his door asking if there were any jews in his house. the truth is that there are, but does anyone believe that telling the truth in that situation is the right thing to do? not anyone i know.

so, if we can do it, couldn't God do it as well? is God allowed to use lying as a means to bring about a good ends? if so, the calvinist is allowed to say God can lie about the destruction he knows he will never bring on them in order to bring about good means, namely repentence of the people.

again though, this all depends on whether or not the ends justify the means.

what do you guys think? do the ends justify the means?
 
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1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
G I T – Right, the ends do not justify the means, but the fact is that they never do. Never. What justifies anything is if it is righteous or not. The question of the ends justifying the means is a handy tool to emphasize just that one aspect of the same truth. Consider the following to help you get a better focus on what is more foundational than ends and means.

Good and evil
  • It is always right to oppose and reject what is evil,
    it is always wrong to go along with and accept what is evil.

    It’s always right to accept and go along with what is good,
    it’s always wrong to oppose and reject what is good.
Such is simply the opposing nature of good and evil.

If you have the ability to do good and to thwart evil, the more you do not do that, the more wrong (or evil) you are for not doing that. You can’t be good and not oppose evil at the same time (given equal ability to be good and to oppose evil). Evil and good are that naturally opposed.

And I think that goodness and righteousness are an absolute standard that is according to God’s character and ways, but evil is that which opposes and does not accept what is good and righteous. So it is not an absolute standard in the same sense as righteousness and goodness, it’s more of an anti-standard in my understanding.

It is not always wrong to lie, especially if it’s your only tool you have to effectively oppose evil. But how does that break down? It’s always good to do good, it’s always good to oppose evil. It’s always evil to not oppose evil. So in the case of the Nazis and the Jews, murder is evil, and saving and protecting innocent lives is good. Saving the lives of the Jews was more important than your reputation for “always” telling the truth. So you humble your sense of self righteousness concerning always telling the truth to the reality that their lives are way more important to protect. And also that since you are lying for a purely righteous reason ...
(ah ha, theres that ends justifies the means issue)
(the more important and foundational precept is to determine what is the right thing to do, not to ask if the ends justifies anything, and the answer is that it is always good to oppose evil)
... therefore the lying is not held against you because it was the only way to do what was right and protect what was way more important to protect.

Lying is wrong when you do it immorally, and if you lie inappropriately say about insignificant amoral issues, then you would only risk hurting your personal integrity and help to destroy the foundation of otherwise good and godly relationships, which is

trust, honesty, respect, caring, time together, integrity, etc.

You said
so, if we can do it, couldn't God do it as well? is God allowed to use lying as a means to bring about a good ends? if so, the calvinist is allowed to say God can lie about the destruction he knows he will never bring on them in order to bring about good means, namely repentence of the people.

again though, this all depends on whether or not the ends justify the means.

what do you guys think? do the ends justify the means?
Sure, God is allowed to use any morally upright method against evil. But remember, some differences apply to the closed view and their understanding of God’s dealings with creation. To the extent that they are consistent and they maintain that everything ultimately happens according to God’s will, then to that extent there should never be a case where God would need to lie in order to get what He wants to happen! God could always remain truthful and still get what He wants. But according to the OV, God’s will does not always happen in every conceivable way, and yet God remains in control as the ultimate authority but may reasonably resort to using lies in order to thwart the efforts of evil. God was deceptive at the cross because if the devil would have known God’s ultimate plans, the devil would have done everything in his power to make sure that Jesus lives forever without voluntarily dying for us.

We don’t owe too much civility and respect to evil people, that would be trying to be nicer than God. And no one can do that, and no one should try neither.

Secondly, they are not allowed to go beyond the limits of their claim. If God was to some very real extent being purposefully dishonest about His intended course of action, and then by doing so God attained what He wanted by manipulating Nineveh into national repentance, God would have to stop the dishonesty after the goal had been reached and evil was no longer to be opposed!

It would be analogous to the Nazis and the Jews if AFTERWARDS when the Jewish family hid in your home was saved from the evil, but you kept lying anyways even though the evil was completely done away with. For example, lets say that this happened right near the end of the war. For you to continue propagating the lie that they are not in your home, might entail them not getting the food and supplies they need since you act as though they are not there, and you might not let them know the war is over because, they are honestly not there. So such propagation of a lie for no good reason is only senseless and this inappropriate lying actually becomes immoral after the justification for doing so is removed.

Again, it’s not ends justifies the means, there is one righteous standard of right and wrong and conformity to that is what matters for justification.

If they were right and God was not telling the truth but was rather using some sort of reverse psychology, then after they repented, He would no longer put on the show that what He honestly was intending on actually harming them by bringing a national disaster upon them as correlated by God’s opposing anger. There is no moral grounds for perpetuating a lie when there is no evil to oppose, so it is the fact of what God said AFTER they repented, that refutes the notion that God was just using reverse psychology and not telling the truth.

I don’t think it’s so much about the ends justifying the means, as it is about what is and what is not right. Even the statement, the ends justifies the means is subject to whether or not that test is according to righteousness or not.
  • It is always right to oppose and reject what is evil,
    it is always wrong to go along with and accept what is evil.

    It’s always right to accept and go along with what is good,
    it’s always wrong to oppose and reject what is good.
Such is simply the nature of good and evil.
 
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1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
Morality is relational and dynamic, not arbitrary and flat. There is not a standard that says that lying is “always” a moral wrong. However there is a standard that says that it is always wrong to violate the truth “without just cause”. More simply, it is wrong to do anything unjustly.

How about the unmistakable reality that in Christianity, “love” is not only central, it is both essential and preeminent. At the same time, depending on what you do with love is what determines it’s moral or righteous value, not if you simply have love or not. Not even the love chapter is exempt from the following conditional relationship to righteousness.

Consider:

It is true that in the Greek, there are several words for “love”, including the word for godly love, agape. Also, it is true that in the NT for example, this idea of love is often taught in a general unqualified sense, as though love is in a class or standard all it’s own.
  • They will know you by your love
    It is worthless if it does not have love
    etc.
But, it is not an autonomous issue like many suggest it may be. You can not have a godly love, and also not abhor evil at the same time! That would result in the so called love as actually being the sin of hypocrisy, and of course godly love is not a sin.
  • Ro 12:9 [Let] love [be] without hypocrisy. Abhor what is evil. Cling to what is good.
The word for love there is “agape”. God is teaching that if you “start out with” or presuppose “godly love”, but you do not “abhor evil”, then you it becomes the sin of hypocrisy because of how you dealt unrighteously with it.

This demonstrates quite conclusively that even agape love is subject to God’s standards of goodness and righteousness. And it demonstrates very well that morality is primarily a relational consideration, it is not just a static one. Is murder always wrong? Yes, because it is always wrong for someone to shed someone else’s innocent blood, and to violate inalienable human rights, like our right to life granted to us by God unless the person is guilty of committing a capitol offense, then that person forfeited that right to life and deserves to be put to death.

In the case of lying, you have to consider it’s contextual use before determining if the particular use of lying was wrong or not. But if no context is offered or allowed, then I’d say that none the less, one remains, and that is that ultimately the truth matters greatly, and that which violates the truth is akin to violating God and His ways. So as such, lying is a moral wrong, but it is wrong because of fitting it under that particular contextual use. So you simply can not escape the dynamic relationship between a deed, and moral contextual circumstance involved in it’s commission.

So lying is wrong as it relates directly to the issue of accepting or rejecting God and His ways, but lying is not always wrong, especially if used as an effective weapon against evil. And this is not a slippery slope towards promoting dishonesty, instead it is simply a fact that well demonstrated in that murder is wrong but a righteous execution of a murder is right, so the context involved in any given moral consideration is always crucial in determining whether or not it was a morally good or morally bad thing to do.
 

lee_merrill

New member
Hi everyone,

I will jump in again...

Morality is relational and dynamic, not arbitrary and flat. There is not a standard that says that lying is “always” a moral wrong. However there is a standard that says that it is always wrong to violate the truth “without just cause”. More simply, it is wrong to do anything unjustly.

No, lying is always wrong. And God cannot do it:

HEB 6:18 ... it is impossible for God to lie ...

Godrulz: do the ends justify the means?

No, they do not, God will not take a bad road to a good end, nor will he sin in order to accomplish his purpose.

And I don't think we ever have to lie or sin in order to accomplish God's purpose, either:

EST 4:14 For if you remain silent at this time, relief and deliverance for the Jews will arise from another place.

Deliverance is sure, regardless of whether people who should act do act, implying also that deliverance is also sure if they refuse to sin.

Godrulz: did they HAVE to repent? was their repentence ordained?

Yes. Jonah expected it, even:

JNH 4:2 He prayed to the Lord, "O Lord, is this not what I said when I was still at home?"

why would God ordain that someone run away from what he wants done? that sure doesn't sound efficient to say the least.

To teach the futility of disobedience! That's not inefficient, it had a good purpose. And to save some sailors, too...

1Way: that His intentions towards Nineveh was to

bring national disaster (3:10)

from His anger and not lovingkindness (4:2)

and from His intention to do harm (4:2)

Jonah 3:10 says destruction was his threat, but that does not imply intent. And Jonah 4:2 says that God is slow to anger, implying he almost certainly was not angry, and that he is compassionate, implying that his intent was not harm, and Jonah even says he relents from calamity, that it is typical of God to do so, implying that God's character is to show compassion, even when he threatens, which Jonah is saying applies in this case.

And you have all skipped Z Man's question: "If God's original intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah?"

Blessings,
Lee
 

Z Man

New member
GIT,

Well, I would reply to your post, but it seems that Lee has already beat me to it and done a good job of answering it as well. Unless you want me to specifically answer your post, only to repeat what Lee has already said, I am not going to do so.
Originally posted by lee_merrill

And you have all skipped Z Man's question: "If God's original intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah?"

Blessings,
Lee
Thanks Lee. I was beginning to think no one noticed...
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Z Man
"If God's original intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah?"

God intended to destroy Nineveh but sent Jonah in the hopes of not having to do so, isn't that obvious. Mercy is greater than judgment and God takes no particular pleasure in destroying whole cities if it can be avoided. But I assure you, if Nineveh had not repented then God would have destroyed the city just as He said He would.
What if we look at the question from the reverse angle?

If God had no intention of destroying Nineveh, why would He have sent Jonah to lie? He did say, "40 days and Nineveh will be destroyed." Is God a liar?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

God intended to destroy Nineveh but sent Jonah in the hopes of not having to do so, isn't that obvious.
Ummm... then He never really wanted to destroy Ninevah. That's exactly what I've been saying. That's why Jonah was sent; to avoid having Ninevah destroyed. God's purpose was to bring about repentance in the hearts of the Ninevites.

God doesn't just "hope"; He does. He's not just sitting back in Heaven, hoping that things will go His way - that man will "be good", and do His bidding. The universe has not been handed to us to work, as God sits back and bites His nails, "hoping" everything goes as planned. He is actively working out His will on this earth in whatever way He sovereignly desires to see come to pass.
But I assure you, if Nineveh had not repented then God would have destroyed the city just as He said He would.
I'm sure He would of, but that's not the case. Let's just stick with Biblical truth instead of "assuming" what would of, could of happened IF such and such happened. That game always leads to trouble, especially in dealing with God....
What if we look at the question from the reverse angle?

If God had no intention of destroying Nineveh, why would He have sent Jonah to lie? He did say, "40 days and Nineveh will be destroyed." Is God a liar?
Well, if Ninevah hadn't of repented, and after 40 days, God didn't destroy them, then yes, He would of been a liar. But again, your playing the "what if" game.

Again, the question was, "If God's intention was to destroy Ninevah, why did He send Jonah?" And your reply was exactly what the answer is: His intention wasn't to destroy Ninevah; it was to bring about repentance. Finally, you see it our way...

:D
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
If Jonah was not lying then my question is valid whether it's a what if question or not.

If God wasn't lying when He said that in 40 days Ninevah will be destroyed then it was His intention to do just that, or do you doubt God's word?

This is about as disengenous a line of thought as I've seen you make Z Man. God threatened Ninevah with thier lives and when they responded so did God. How hard is that to figure out? There is no mystery here. God said He would do something, the circumstances changed so God repented and "did not do it". Simple.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
No, lying is always wrong. And God cannot do it:

HEB 6:18 ... it is impossible for God to lie ...

then what about in this case?

"just like if a man was hiding some jews in his house during WWII and a nazi came and knocked at his door asking if there were any jews in his house. the truth is that there are, but does anyone believe that telling the truth in that situation is the right thing to do?"

is lying wrong if it protects people?

Yes. Jonah expected it, even:

JNH 4:2 He prayed to the Lord, "O Lord, is this not what I said when I was still at home?"

then they had no free will.

Jonah 3:10 says destruction was his threat, but that does not imply intent. And Jonah 4:2 says that God is slow to anger, implying he almost certainly was not angry, and that he is compassionate, implying that his intent was not harm, and Jonah even says he relents from calamity, that it is typical of God to do so, implying that God's character is to show compassion, even when he threatens, which Jonah is saying applies in this case.

if it was just a threat with NO intent, then WHY did they repent? if God didn't intend to destroy them, then what were they worried about? the people of ninevah believed that God meant what he said. they believed that he truly was going to destroy them and they prayed and repented in the hope that God would change his mind about them and relent of the wrath he had planned for them because of their wickedness.

And you have all skipped Z Man's question: "If God's original intended purpose was to destroy Ninevah, than why did He send Jonah?"

God wanted the people to repent. by sending Jonah, he could get 2 possible responses from the people. they would either reject him as a liar and thus bring judgement upon themselves further or they would believe him and repent and God would spare them after seeing what they did.

so God's mindset was basically "i don't want these people to perish. i will send Jonah to preach to them judgement on their wickedness in the hope that they will believe him and repent and then i will not have to punish them".
 
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