2 Pet. 3:9 Defeats the Arminian/Open Theist view of Scripture

Rolf Ernst

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To those of you who are impatient with my responses to your objections



Maybe I don't have as much time to spend on a keyboard as you do. There are many more of you than there are of me, and you all probably have more time to spend on the forum than I do.

Right now, I am in the process of showing that the verses which Arminians use to support their heresy do NOT do so, but militate against Arminianism. Soon, I will begin threads where Arminians can deal with Scriptures which Reformed people use to prove THEIR doctrinal position. We will then see who deals most honestly with
the verses which others put forth. All the debate to this point has been under misguided opposition of the Arminians. Soon, they can show their expertise at handling verses which, at first glance, seem to support a contrary doctrine. Get ready, all you Arminians.
 

Rolf Ernst

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Godrulz---Your attempt to require that if Proverbs 8: 22-36 is about Christ then the text of Chapter nine must ALSO be is strange.
All the words of Scripture concerning Christ are like diamonds scattered through ALL the Scriptures. I never before heard anyone demand, for example, that if Isa. 10 doesn't have prophecy in it concerning Christ, then the claim that the ninth chapter does is insupportable.
 

Rolf Ernst

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Godrulz--Concerning Eph. 1 and what you refer to as a corporate election. I understand you maintain that primarily to posit an election which is ultimately determined by men rather than God. That is, you believe that God foresaw who in time would believe on Christ, and on the basis of seeing their decision for Christ, elected them. Is that right?
Be patient. I'll get back with you on this. Thanks
 

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Hey Rolf

Do you know there is really NO DIFFERENCE between the Arminian and the Calvinist.

Their end results are NEARLY IDENTICAL. 95-99% of the population of humanity winds up being ETERNALLY TORTURED in EITHER CASE.

What's the difference on how they got there? Whether by adding one by one by one by one or two by two if the result of the calculation is THE SAME there is NO MATTER.

You guys should band up on the ONLY DOCTRINE you AGREE ON....

and that is THAT 95-99% of mankind WILL NOT RECIEVE forgiveness of sins and will burn in hell forever. This is the sole position of agreement.

Start from the point where you ALL AGREE and work your way out. If you see ALIKE in this point there will be a lot less fighting.

Then you can all focus on convincing that 1-4% of the population that you can make DOUBLE SONS OF HELL like yourselves.

enjoy!

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1Way

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Here it is, I hope this helps you see what has been presented to you

Here it is, I hope this helps you see what has been presented to you

Rolf – I don’t know greek, I’ve never studied it. I know how to reference “reference works” and compare contextual use pretty well. I am in no way presenting to you my scholarship or my translation, because I do not know how to read Greek. I am using your translation to demonstrate it’s own inconsistency an inaccuracy.

This all be done using the KJV with the rendering of 2Pet 3.9, “come to”.

Here is the text in question
2Pet 3.9

2Pe 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
I did a search for all occurrences of the same word for “come to”. John 21.25 was the only other occurrence, although as Jeremy points out, the same word in different forms have other occurrences.

Here is John 21.25

Joh 21:25
And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.
The negative idea is provided by an earlier word. Here is a Greek and Enlish interlinear to help you see the location of the words with the English equivalents.

Disclaimer: I think there are one or two letters in the font that differ from the font in my bible study program, so this text may be off in a letter here or there, but this example is not about letters but about word position and general word meaning to help the reader understand that the negation idea “not” is provided prior to the “could contain” idea. This is not a crucial nor disputed issue, but to simply demonstrate how informative a word comparison study can be.

Joh 21:25
[size=3.5]estin de[/size] {AND THERE ARE} [size=3.5]kai[/size] {ALSO} [size=3.5]alla[/size] {OTHER THINGS} [size=3.5]polla[/size] {MANY} [size=3.5]osa[/size] {WHATSOEVER} [size=3.5]epoihsen o[/size] {DID} [size=3.5]ihsouv[/size] {JESUS,} [size=3.5]atina[/size] {WHICH} [size=3.5]ean[/size] {IF} [size=3.5]grafhtai[/size] {THEY SHOULD BE WRITTEN} [size=3.5]kay en[/size] {ONE BY ONE,} [size=3.5]oude[/size] {NOT EVEN} [size=3.5]auton[/size]auton {ITSELF} [size=3.5]oimai[/size] {I SUPPOSE} [size=3.5]ton[/size] {THE} [size=3.5]kosmon[/size] {WORLD} [size=3.5]cwrhsai[/size] {WOULD CONTAIN} [size=3.5]ta[/size] {THE} [size=3.5]grafomena[/size] {WRITTEN} [size=3.5]biblia[/size] {BOOKS.} [size=3.5]amhn[/size] {AMEN.}
So by that we understand that the word behind the English words, “could not contain”, actually is the word kho-reh-o, which is Strong’s 5562, and contributes the idea “could contain”, not “could not contain”.

So here are those two verses again this time side by side, with the word in question highlighted in blue.

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

Joh 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.
Now, so far, all I have shown you is that I can look up the same Greek word and compare two verses using the same word with the same voice tense mood according to my bible study program (the OnLineBible). The verses are all using the KJV, the Gree from the TR for searching and display only.

Now, this is my observation, it is not an argument I am making up. To examine the translation’s consistency, we can just look at the renderings to see how they come across. They are

“should come”
“could contain”

on the surface, they are both permitting ideas showing some ability of action.

Now, lets swap the rendering in the verses to see how the context fleshes things out. This is where the differences between these two renderings become more evident.

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all could contain repentance.

Joh 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself should not come to the books that should be written. Amen.

Earlier I started to mix up the idea “not” into my comparison and I apologize for that mistake, the thought that the would should not approach writing about God’s awesomeness should not enter the comparison. The “use” of the word in 2Pe 3.9 is in the positive and so to make an “apples to apples” comparison, we should render the use in John 21.25 in the positive as well, which is easily accommodated.

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all could contain repentance.

Joh 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I do not suppose that even the world itself should come to the books that should be written. Amen.
Findings
In 2Pe 3.9 the general idea of “could contain” is roughly “have room for” or “make room for” etc. so this idea seems to fit pretty good with the sense in which it is used.

But, when you look at John 12.25, it does not fit very well. Consider this rendering in terms of action. “Come to” is the idea of “approaching” or “arriving at”. But the idea being graphically displayed in John 21.25 is not so much “approaching” or “arriving”, it’s about “having enough room”, the whole world may not have enough room for all the books ... so it’s a word about “having” or “making room” or as the text was rendered “containing”, “could contain”.

Assessment
This swapping of renderings would make 2Pet 3.9 into a reasonable verse, but John 21.25 is problematic at best, because what in the world would it matter if the world could or could not approach these books? John is not talking about the issue of world wide access to these books, but rather the idea is all about the enormity of such books and that the world could not “have enough room for” them, it “could not contain” them.

Also, I grant that the contextual use of a word does not determine the words meaning per say, but it can give good indicator’s of it’s appropriate use, and by comparing alternate renderings it can become easier to see what aspects of the rendering fits and what does not. So what I just did does not exactly limit the scope of the meaning of this word, but it does serve to demonstrate the inconsistency of the translation and that it’s contextual use is not I agreement with the dubious rending in 2Pet 3.9. The rendering in John 12.25 fits both verses just fine so that rendering passes the test, but the rendering in 2Pet 3.9 does not fit John 12.25 very well. Such observation indicates a dubious rendering since it is a very poor fit/bad in John 12.25.

In conclusion
Thus, based upon the translator’s treatment of this same word, it is reasonable to assume that “make room” is better than “should come”, it certainly fits into each context much more clearly, while “come to” hardly fit’s John 12.25 at all.

Again this is going strictly by their own translation work, I am simply observing the noticeable inconsistency with what they submitted was the correct renderings, and how the Pet rendering does not compare well while the John rendering does just fine. So please don’t misunderstand what has been presented for your consideration. This is not mocking the translators per say. This is demonstrating their own inconstancy and how these two examples serve to invalidate “come to” and validate “could contain”, “make room for”, “to make room for”.
 
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godrulz

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst

Godrulz---Your attempt to require that if Proverbs 8: 22-36 is about Christ then the text of Chapter nine must ALSO be is strange.
All the words of Scripture concerning Christ are like diamonds scattered through ALL the Scriptures. I never before heard anyone demand, for example, that if Isa. 10 doesn't have prophecy in it concerning Christ, then the claim that the ninth chapter does is insupportable.

I agree with your general statements, but these are not parallel examples. Each context (remote/immediate) must be looked at on its own merit. I understand the isolated Messianic verses. There is more continuity between Prov. 8;9 than Is. 7:14 and Is. 9:6 and all the verses between.
 

godrulz

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst

Godrulz--Concerning Eph. 1 and what you refer to as a corporate election. I understand you maintain that primarily to posit an election which is ultimately determined by men rather than God. That is, you believe that God foresaw who in time would believe on Christ, and on the basis of seeing their decision for Christ, elected them. Is that right?
Be patient. I'll get back with you on this. Thanks

The sister organization in the US that I belong to in Canada (your Assemblies of God) does believe the Arminian view that God's foreknowledge knows who will be saved. Arminians maintain that this foreknowledge does not affect free will.

I have moved to the Open Theist camp. This view maintains free will. God purposes to elect a people for His name (Israel/Church). The atonement is efficacious for all who repent and believe. God does not know as a certainty from eternity past who will ultimately believe or reject Him (i.e. before they existed...in space/time God knows the hearts and inclinations of the individual). He knows possibilities as such and actualities/certainties when the free will moral choice is made. Things He purposes to bring to pass independent of other moral agents (e.g. creation, incarnation) He knows as a certainty.

1. Did God from all eternity decree whatever will come to pass?

Yes= Calvinism (no contingencies; no uncertainties= meticulous control)

No= Arminianism
Alternative (Open Theism)
(contingencies; free will for moral agents)

2. Is everything certain in God's mind from all eternity?

Yes= Calvinism (based on decree/will)
Arminian (foreknow=certainties)

No= Open Theism (uncertainties; God is resourceful, creative, omnicompetent)
 
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1Way

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Godrulz – I think you erred, perhaps by granting too much to Rolf’s assesements when you said
1. Did God from all eternity decree whatever wil come to pass?

Yes= Calvinism (no contingencies; no uncertainties= meticulous control)

No= Arminianism
Alternative (Open Theism)
(contingencies; free will for moral agents)
Arminianism agree’s with God’s absolute foreknowledge of Calvinism, they just try to force “free will” into that scenario anyway. :radar:

I would have said.
1. Did God from all eternity decree whatever will come to pass?

Yes= Calvinism and Arminianism (exhaustive foreknowledge)

No= Open Theism (contingencies exist, along with sufficient foreknowledge)
This point should not be over looked. I’m sure some Arminian’s hold to God’s foreknowledge in different ways, but that was not part of the split away from the Calvinism of many years ago, they accepted that God foreknows all things!
 

godrulz

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I think you are right, as the bottom line, that for free will choices to be known as a certainty they would have to be predestined/caused vs foreknown (Calvinism). Arminians believe that God's foreknowledge is not a decree or causative and that free will is genuine. They see God as an 'eternal now' seeing all of a timeline (past, present, and future) all at once. Just like you watching and knowing about a planned or actual bank robbery does not mean that you caused it in any way, so God's foreknowledge supposedly does not influence our choices. This analogy breaks down since time is not a thing or place (God cannot be in the past and future at the same time since the future does not even exist to be known or 'there').

You and I rightly see the logical contradiction and absurdity of an omniscient being knowing as a certainty future free will choices of moral agents (exhaustive foreknowledge). This knowledge logically negates free will and leaves us with the same predicament as Calvinists. God knows possibilities and certainties/actualities as they are.

So I think I would leave my question as is, since Arminians do not believe that God decrees things from eternity past...He simply 'knows' them without decree. The end result is the same as you astutely observed (Calvinism is not identical to Arminianism...one emphasizes sovereign decree/will, and the other explains things with simple foreknowledge; both believe in exhaustive foreknowledge).

The Open View is the only one that biblically and philosophically resolves the dilemma of God's sovereignty and man's free will. There are 2 motifs with God knowing some of the future (He predestines things like creation, incarnation, cross, return), but some things are open (free moral choices, salvation, mundane choices).
 

Rolf Ernst

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Godrulz--thanks for your post to my question above (the 67th post in this thread). I believe I understand your view well enough now to speak of it without misrepresenting it. If I do misrepresent, call me on it.

Concerning your discussion with 1way--We Calvinists believe God's foreknowledge is based on the fact of His decree, which will, without fail, come to pass. He foreknows what will happen because He has decreed that it shall happen.

Basis for that in scripture: "I am God and there is none else. I am God, and there is none like me," Notice what He says next: "declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, my counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure." See the connection of His knowledge with His power to fulfill all His counsel. He knows what shall be because He has decreed what shall be. In the sequential order, it is counsel (or determination) followed by knowledge
"Foreknow" is also used to denote love from everlasting, as in Jer. 31:3. The use of "know" in the sense of love is not strange to the words of Scripture. Adam "knew" Eve, and she conceived. In Psalm one, "The LORD knows the way of the just, but the way of the ungodly shall perish." This verse is not speaking of bare knowledge, as if He knows (has knowledge of) the way of the just, but is ignorant of the way of the ungodly. Its meaning is that God loves the way of the just, but not the way of the ungodly. Therefore, the way of the ungodly shall perish.
 
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godrulz

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Rolf: The Isaiah passage is one of the favorites of Open Theists. We concur that God predestines and knows some things, but not all things. It is His ability, not foreknowledge, that ensures things come to pass that He purposes.

Dr. Gregory Boyd (Baptist) in "God of the Possible" does a masterful job of showing that there are 2 motifs in Scripture. The many verses that support predestination is one motif (closed future) in Scripture. The other motif (open future) is supported by many other verses that would not fit into the first category. He fairly exegetes verses used by Calvinists/Arminians.

God, in Isaiah, is different than the false gods because He has the ABILITY to bring things to pass that He declares. It is wrong to assume that every moral or mundane choice is meticulously controlled (this is not the only model of sovereignty).
 

Rolf Ernst

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Godrulz--What rates as mundane things which are not under His meticulous care?

I see things which I consider quite mundane under His sovereign rule, such as the life span of sparrows and the hairs of our heads (Mt. 10: 29,30); the life span of all--not merely in the beginning and end of them (as established bounds), but in the progression of them from breath to breath (Acts 17:26), and in all their possessions.
I consider the things spoken of in Acts 17: 25,26 to be among those things which are also spoken of in Heb. 1:3--"...upholding all things by the word of His power." which, I believe you would agree, speaks of even the continual upholding of the entire creation as in Col. 1: 16,17 "For by Him were all things created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him, and He is before all things and by Him all things consist."
As His works of creation encompass all things, so I believe that His providential care likewise encompasses all of His creation, the "consist" of Col. 1:17 meaning not merely the adhering of all things for the duration of their purposed existence, but also all the moment by moments of their existence.
I believe all of these are involved in the true biblical meaning of His omnipotence; that is, that His omnipotence, as John Calvin expressed it, is "not merely some slumbering power" by which He could do any feat of might which He pleased, but it is an ever active, all encompassing power continually energizing the entire creation without which there would be in no place either life or motion.
How far from agreement are we on the proper application of the verses mentioned above? Thank you, Godrulz.
 
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smaller

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Let's see...hmmmm....???

It's the ABILITY of God, not the FOREKNOWLEDGE of God that ensures things come to pass.

hmmmmm......???

Nope.

There is NO DIFFERENCE between either terms or the outcome.

IF God is ABLE to ENSURE the outcome it would appear that FOREKNOWLEDGE is a BYGONE conclusion.
 

godrulz

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Correct, Mr. Smaller. The things that God choses to predestine are globally known. Scripture does not say that every detail and variable on the way to what God purposes is predestined or known.

e.g. If Judas would have repented or died in an accident as a child, God would have used a similar variable to ensure the atonement was accomplished.

Two motifs in Scripture: some, not all things are predestined and known as a certainty. There are genuine contingenies and free moral choices by free moral agents if freedom is genuine and not illusory.
 

helmet84

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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

Typical Calvinism!

Take the plain simple reading of the text and figure out how it means the exact opposite of what is says.

Brilliant! You've probably convinced everybody with your theological back flip!

The fact is that Reformed theology is not even based on Scripture in the first place. Augustine is the one that really got this particular ball rolling and he based his ideas solely on the teachings of Aristotle and Plato. He actually refused to become a Christian until his Bishop (I think his name was Ambrose) explained that all of the talk in the Old Testament about God changing in many ways (including changing His mind) didn't really mean what they said. Augustine didn't become a Christian until he could figure out a way of interpreting the scripture in light of the Aristitilian idea of an immutable God.
ALL of what is known today as Calvinism is a logical derivation from the single premise that God cannot change in any way whatsoever. Total depravity, unconditional election, limited atonement, irresistible grace, and the preservation of the saints are all individually derived from the immutability of God. If it can be shown that God changes in any way at all, then Calvinism falls completely apart.

Resting in Him,
Clete

Hello, Hemult84 here.

I'm new to this forum. You know, there are many of us out here who read these postings, but we never register or reply. We are genuinely open-minded, and seeking truth.

I read so many posts on these forums that are just like this one. They really don't deal with the scripture or points that are being made. They just call them a name, or sweep them under some "ism" (i.e. Calvinism, Open Theism, or whatever) and then give each other kudos and high-fives because they feel they've vanquished their enemy. Well, maybe they have, or maybe they haven't. But for many of us out here, we just want positive, clear contextual explanations for the scriptures that are being discussed. We're not interested in what 'ism' anyone belongs to.

For instance, concerning Rolf Ernst's original post here, I would be very interested in seeing how you interpret the 'usward' in this verse. Rolf has given an interesting (and seemingly) plausible explanation of the text, which at least attempts to deal with the context. If you disagree, what is your view? What is your explanation of the text?

Forgive me if you have already done that. There are 73 responses to this thread already, and I just don't have time to read it all. If you have already done so, just point me to your response.

Thanks sincerely,

Helmut84
 

Rolf Ernst

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Helmut 84---"usward" is a reference to the elect of God: those chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world, (Eph. 1:4); who are therefore His children, having been placed in Him as His "seed" (Isa. 53:10), whom He will surely see and to whom, of course, He therefore became their "everlasting Father," and it is to these that He is "the prince of peace." (Isa. 9:6)

The facts concerning Christ are parallel in every point to facts concerning the first man, Adam. As created, Adam had within himself all of humanity, and he was therefore the federal head of all humanity; that is, Adam was the legal representative before God of all those in him. The principle of legal representation is not strange at all. We humans still use the same legal principle, and in so doing, we admit that there is a valid legal basis for it. So we have ambassadors who speak on behalf of and represent the whole body of American citizenship to other nations. The president is a legal representative for this nation, and we citizens are also bound into treaties on the basis of legal representation.
There was a real legal contract between God and all of mankind in Adam. Adam failed, and brought death upon all of his.
There is a real legal contract between Christ, the "everlasting
Father," and God concerning all those chosen in Him. Christ, unlike the first man Adam, brings life to all those in Him. That is the main message of the fifth chapter of Romans. Just as surely as Adam brought death to his, Christ brings life to His, because He is the federal "head" of the church.
The only way the fifth chapter of Romans can be literally true and precise in every point made is by understanding that the key thought concerning both Adam and Christ is that they both had within them certain ones who were their children, and both the children of Adam and the children of Christ inherited either weal or woe on the basis of the performance of their father; the children of Adam, woe; the children of Christ, weal.
The "usward" in 2Pet. 3:9 is a reference to those who were chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world. They are the ones toward whom God is longsuffering; they are the ones whom God is not willing that they should perish, but that all of them should come to repentance. It is only by viewing this verse through the aspect of Christ's children that 2 Pet. 3:9 makes sense, because if anyone tries to apply it to all men without exemption, then the purpose of God in His longsuffering is self-defeating because it is clear that the longer God delays His return in judgment, the more there are who DO perish. The way that leads to destruction is, in every generation, that broad road with the many upon it. But since the reference is only to those chosen children, God's purpose in His longsuffering is not defeated, but realized in the salvation of those toward whom He is longsuffering, as the apostle says later (verse 15) "consider that the longsuffering of God is salvation."
The children of Christ are called sheep by Him even before they heard the message concerning Him--"other sheep I have which are not of this fold. Them also I must bring" (see the future tense?) and there will be one fold." There is the "must" element.Christ "must" bring His sheep.
Again, Christ spoke to Paul as he was in the course of one of his journeys, saying "I have many people in this city." They were His people even before the gospel reached them, and His sheep were His even before He gathered them into one fold.
On that last night before His crucifixtion, Christ referred to a world for which He did not pray (see john 17), saying, "I pray not for the world, but for those whom you have given me."
He did not mean that He did not pray for anybody in the world, but that He did not pray for the world of non-elect people; that is, for those not chosen in Him.
Many try to load the word "world" with a meaning which Scripture many times does not intend. In Scripture the word world is used in various ways. In places it refers to the entire creation--everybody; in other places it is a reference to all those who are Christ's children by election; in other places it is the world of the non-elect.
One of the best Bible study aids is Strong's exhaustive concordance, by which you can quickly follow out all the references to any word and see how the Bible itself uses certain words. One of our most common failings today is to assume that the bible uses words the same way we do today. As a consequence, many believe that their own understanding and use of certain words is the proper meaning and always applies to the words of Scripture.
I hope this has not been to long or unnecessarily laborious toward answering your question. Thanks for asking. Ralph.
 
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1Way

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don't accept their ideas by confusing terms, use the truth

don't accept their ideas by confusing terms, use the truth

Godrulz – You mostly agreed with me, and also said
So I think I would leave my question as is, since Arminians do not believe that God decrees things from eternity past...He simply 'knows' them without decree.
I think you subtly promoting their confusion by not being more clear with the words you use.

They believe that God part of God’s declaration is that He knows all things including exhaustive foreknowledge, but did not “decree” them.

(Right?)

If they did not believe that God’s word teaches us that He knows all things then they would not believe God’s exhaustive foreknowledge so they do include God’s decreeing will concerning His knowledge in a very real sense. I don’t know why you wish to use that word “decree”, we have definitive alternatives like know/knowledge and cause, plan fore-ordain, predestine, etc. The point is that we should brake down the issue into more discrete doable issues so that as we minister to them, they are less able to juggle multiple competing issues in their mind, because as a general rule, the more ideas at work in any given judgment, the more prone to error the judgements will become. The simpler, the better. Especially now with Rolf, he thinks we are Arminian’s and we are not. He is proclaiming his ignorance and you are perhaps a bit too accepting of it, which is somewhat insulting in several ways, for him and for everyone else. It is fine to accept a person’s ideas for the sake of analysis, but if they are wrong, don’t compromise your ideas with their words for the sake of palatability. Speak the truth in love.

You went on to say
The Open View is the only one that biblically and philosophically resolves the dilemma of God's sovereignty and man's free will. There are 2 motifs with God knowing some of the future (He predestines things like creation, incarnation, cross, return), but some things are open (free moral choices, salvation, mundane choices).
See, there you go again, you talk like there are perhaps three (or more?) views when considering God’s future knowledge and the open view. There are not three or more views, there are only two, open and closed and there are no other options. I believe that until this idea is set firm within you, you will continue to present a somewhat fuzzy unclear view. Don’t be ashamed of the clarity that God’s word richly affords us and sets us free. Stand against the false teachings that bind and hinder Christians everywhere they are promoted.
 

1Way

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Helmut 84 – Rolf – You are asking what’s in the meaning of the words “us ward”?

The ultimate understanding of what any word or phrase means, is how it is used in context. You can not force the word to overturn it’s contextual use, after all, you can even use the “wrong” word and still convey what you essentially mean. The wider context trumps the narrow every time.

More important than trying to establish a definition around a pronoun, deal with the meaningful content of God’s word and words. God said that He does not purpose/will/desire that any be lost, but that all should make/have room for repentance, so, this verse is about as unCalvinistic and closed view as one can get.

But to directly answer your question. Here is a good general rule to go by. God wrote the bible to mankind with special regards to His own saved people.

Agreed?

“Towards us” is in direct reference to
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning [His] promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.
and then further back we have
2Pe 3:1 Beloved, I now write to you this second epistle (in [both of] which I stir up your pure minds by way of reminder),
thus showing that first and second Peter have the same specific audience in mind. He is addressing other like minded circumcision believers...
2Pe 1:1 Simon Peter, a bondservant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ:
and
1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To the pilgrims of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, 2 elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied.
So plainly from scripture, Peter’s audience is specifically “the pilgrims of the Dispersion” = the Jews who are elect according to the foreknowledge and sanctification of the Spirit...

1Pe 1:9 receiving the end of your faith——the salvation of [your] souls.
...
1Pe 2:8 and "A stone of stumbling And a rock of offense." They stumble, being disobedient to the word, to which they also were appointed. 9 But you [are] a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
Very interesting side note. Notice appointed is in contrast against them being disobedient to God! This verse is saying that not everyone obeys God even though they were appointed to obedience to the word, not appointed to be disobedient, but appointed to be obedient to the word, which they were disobedient towards! Also, the same word tith’-ay-mee (S’s#5087) can mean a very strong meaning as in the following.
1Th 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ,
So the idea that we are appointed by God, even concerning salvation does not (necessarily) imply exhaustive foreknowledge and individual predestination to heaven or hell, but it is used to clearly demonstrate that God’s (appointed) will is often not done, although in other cases, what God appoints will not be altered.

But the point of all that was to better highlight who Peter had in mind in his epistles, the updated corporate Israel is the focus, God’s saved chosen people who had the priesthood, believing Israel.

Also, anyone under Petrian (apostolic) authority (those outside this dispensation both before and after) should naturally be considered in this group, just as today we are under Pauline (apostolic) authority over us in this dispensation of mystery and grace. Very simple really.


So what is the significance of your request? Just curious. :eek:
 
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helmet84

New member
Originally posted by 1Way



So what is the significance of your request?


Thanks for your reply, which I agree with for the most part.

The significance of my request is this: In my opinion an understanding of the verse hinges on the word 'usward' (or "toward us").

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning [His] promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

The word 'any' is a pronoun which refers back to the "toward us". So the verse really has this sense: ". . . longsuffering toward us, not willing that any (of us) should perish, but that all should come to repentance."

If this is not the sense of the verse, then why does he say that the Lord is longsuffering "toward us"? Especially when the 'us' (and I agree with you) refers to everything you said in your post above -- i.e. the pilgrims of the dispersion, elect, etc.

It seems to me Peter is saying that God is longsuffering toward us because He is not willing that any of us should perish, but that everyone of us should come to repentance.

And this seems to be Rolfe' original point:

Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
Who is He longsuffering toward? He is longsuffering to “usward”: toward the elect; those whom He chose in Christ before the foundation of the world and promised to Christ as His “seed” whom He would “see” (Isa. 53:10) and be satisfied. He is not willing that ANY of those to whom Christ is “the Everlasing Father, the Prince of Peace” should perish. He will withhold His coming until they ALL “come to repentance,” no matter how many of the non-elect perish.

And that is exactly the outcome of His longsuffering. As Paul says in verse 15, “consider that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation.

Now whether or not this is 'calvinism' or 'open theism' or whatever, is irrelevant to me. I'm concerned with what does the Bible teach -- what is really the truth. I've noticed when we sweep someone’s view under one of these 'isms', we then attack the 'ism' (or what we think the 'ism' is), rather than honestly and directly dealing with what a brother or sister in Christ is really trying to communicate to us.

Thanks again for your reply.

-- helmet84
 

1Way

+OL remote satellite affiliate
... so that the saved, ,,, not go to hell ,,, hmmm, ,,,

... so that the saved, ,,, not go to hell ,,, hmmm, ,,,

Helmet84 – You said
The word 'any' is a pronoun which refers back to the "toward us".
Yes and no. Consider
2Pe 3:3 knowing this first: that scoffers will come in the last days, walking according to their own lusts, 4 and saying, "Where is the promise of His coming? For since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of creation."
The second coming is not just about and for us, we who are saved. When Jesus returns, He will deal swiftly and justly with the unsaved world! So it’s both, for us, and, for them.

The “example” of God’s longsuffering for us does not have to be about us, the fact is that God councils/desires that no one goes to hell, but that all should become saved. That is a general yet obvious reference towards the lost that they should become saved, not the saved that they should become/remain saved.

Remember the context, just as it was since the flood, people may forget the Lord as though the flood never happened, but God is not slack, He is patient and purposes that none go to hell.

I’m reminded of the tricky ways that some English words are used, consider.

Jesse James is wanted for robbery.

What is the relationship between the word “for” and the verb phrase, is wanted? Seems as plain as day, right? But consider, is it in reference to past robberies, or future? Is the sign seeking his arrest for breaking the law, or seeking him so as to break more laws? The words grammatically do not indicate one way or the other, so we have to fill in the details from the contextual development. Same in this case, it’s not simply for and about us, but the “example” of God’s longsuffering is better understood as concerning the lost.

(OSAS = one form of Antinomianism; OSAS does not = Catholicism = nomianism, nomian basically means to work, or a works based faith, nomianism, Catholics are big on you continuing to do the sacraments as part of what it means get to heaven, they reject OSAS.)
I think it is true that most people believe that you can not loose your salvation. And certainly the vast majority of the Calvinists believe in OSAS (Once Saved Always Saved). So taking that idea to the passage makes no sense, consider. God is referring to saved people = OSAS. To suggest as you are, that God is saying that His longsuffering/patience in waiting to return is demonstrated by His “longsuffering” that the saved wont go to hell, is contradictory nonsense. God is not patiently waiting to return to demonstrate His longsuffering in that the OSAS may not go to hell. If we are OSAS, then we cant go to hell, no matter if Jesus terries for one minuet or for 7 million years. This longsuffering would make no meaningful impact of the eternal security of those who are already OSAS.

So yes, God is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any perish (spiritually), He will return to set up Israel’s promised kingdom.

I hope this helps. Also, I agree that we should be more biblical, but that is according to an ism (conservatism, fundamentalism, bible over man-ism, etc.). Ism’s are helpful must like the bible’s use of the term “doctrine”. Some if not most teachings from scripture are too involving to have to repeat the whole thing every time you want to make a reference to it. So naturally we refer to teachings and systems of belief with their respective terms/handles/isms. You may be like Rolf and others here that do not know much about the open/closed views. That’s ok, don’t sweat the small stuff. And any time you have a question about what is being said, just ask, most people are very happy to explain what they mean by using such and such terms.
 
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