Cross Reference
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Why does God allow it __even when we pray for Him to not lead us into it?
Are you an Israelite? You are one confused dude.
Why does God allow it __even when we pray for Him to not lead us into it?
I am a classical Pentecostal of 77 yrs __it is all real.
Phonies | |
Cross Reference in action | |
:Jesus saves completely
Yes, He does. __and then He gave instructions to be followed for His salvation to be made effective.____ Get a life, ----- His.
Perhaps then, maybe, you will have a clue.
Scary Many of them - while they believed in the necessity of a separate (Holy Spirit) baptism after conversion - would have disavowed the necessity to speak in tongues or some other charismatic expression as evidence of such a baptism.
There is only one baptism today. Therefore, that excludes them from any truth in their claims. You believe that pervert, or you believe the Holy Bible. There is no in between.
There is only one baptism today. Therefore, that excludes them from any truth in their claims. You believe that pervert, or you believe the Holy Bible. There is no in between.
So Acts 19 is "rebaptism"? Why is it that the disciples didn't receive the Holy Spirit until Paul laid his hands on them (i.e. not by water) in Acts 19:6?
Seems you have some accusations you can't support with knowledge.
Ephesians 4
4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called in one hope of your calling; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism; 6 one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Believers are immersed (baptized) into Christ by the Holy Spirit. That is the one baptism that Paul speaks of. The others are of Israel and Jacob's trouble.
Why does God allow it __even when we pray for Him to not lead us into it?
On Topic:
So, what is the purpose and importance of temptation for God to allow it?