ECT WHAT DOES JESUS MEAN HERE ??

[DAN P]

Hi to all , and Jesus means in Luke 4:17 Jesus spake these words !

Verse 17 , Jesus read from Luke 4 :18 , , Thne Spirit of the Lord is upon Me , to preach the gospel !!

Then verse 19 , To preach the Acceptable Year of the Lord !!

Jesus did not read any further !!

Jesus CLOSED the book of Isaiah 61:2 in in the MIDDLE of verse 2 , WHY ??

The rest of the verse says " and the Day of Venggeance " .

The Gap is because Israel was set aside so that God could FORM His Body called the Body of Christ !!

This is why TONGUES/LANGUAGES had to Cease and why Israel was set aside until the ' Time of the Gentiles be come in " Rom 11:25 and then God will again deal withe Israel as referenced in Rom 11:26 !!

So when is the Vengeance of God as it has yet to be accomplished ??

dan p

 

[Interplanner]

Slow down, there. There is another understanding of the day of vengeance.
1, that it is about the universal wrath of God coming upon Christ in a couple years. I don't think I could have stomached reading that either, if so. "The wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all the unrighteousness of men."'

2, Jesus' appeal to Israel is to believe on him and work in his mission. The rejection of this would lead to the destruction of Jerusalem, one of the most horrible events in ancient history in which 1.2M died, the losing side acted stupidly and claimed messianic powers etc. Like a huge Jamestown event, but it was a whole country. Ending with the mass slaughter of another 1000 at Masada, executed by lottery-drawn selections.

Jesus and Paul said the wrath of God was upon Israel in that event.

On some other points:
Tongues.
THey were a sign to Jews who did not believe God was trying to reach the nations. They didn't have to cease by a certain date, but after Pentecost, the convincing of Peter, and the little incident near Ephesus, there was no further need for this kind of proof. There was some variation going on at Corinth but Paul tried to steer them back to the actual purpose.

Missionary translators are not in need of this kind of proof; it was not mere translation. It was proof to unbelieving Jews about the mission of the Gospel to the nations.

Israel "Set Aside"
Misconception. Any jewish person since the Gospel event can believe and be part of the "Israel of God." God is not working with ethnos groups in various ways, and really, it was Judaism who thought he was. See Rom 11:30; don't just stop at 26 for a wing-dinger one-liner. All distinctions are now over with.

When Paul quotes Is 59 and 27 there, he means it historically: it already is accomplished:
the Redeemer came
the new covenant is in place
the debt of sins is taken away

All who believe that are the Israel of God, the seed of Abraham, though not the descendants (which is irrelevant any more).

 

[DAN P]

Hi , and just give a verse where the NEW COVENANT/DIATHEKE is in place today ??

dan p

 

[Interplanner]

Got internet? Got biblegateway? Just enter in the search window:

From memory:
Mt 26:28, 29 it is new in the kingdom and is for the forgiveness of sins
Rom 11:27 (Is 59 and 27). Now be sure to correlate that with Matthew above
2 Cor 3-5 yes, read all 3
Heb 8+ I think from here to the end of 10 it is really a sermon based on jer 31, so read all the way through 10

 

[DAN P]

Got internet? Got biblegateway? Just enter in the search window:

From memory:
Mt 26:28, 29 it is new in the kingdom and is for the forgiveness of sins
Rom 11:27 (Is 59 and 27). Now be sure to correlate that with Matthew above
2 Cor 3-5 yes, read all 3
Heb 8+ I think from here to the end of 10 it is really a sermon based on jer 31, so read all the way through 10

Hi , and all Pentecosals never seem to get these right , do THEY ?

The New Covenant is mentioned in Heb 8:8 and the CONTEXT always seem to escape them !!

The other book is in Ezek 36 , where it explains what the NEW Covenant means and the LIST OF THINGS that are contained in the New Covenant that is given to Israel as the GRNTILES / ETHENOS never received , Eph 2:12 !!

dan p

 

[DAN P]

Got internet? Got biblegateway? Just enter in the search window:

From memory:
Mt 26:28, 29 it is new in the kingdom and is for the forgiveness of sins
Rom 11:27 (Is 59 and 27). Now be sure to correlate that with Matthew above
2 Cor 3-5 yes, read all 3
Heb 8+ I think from here to the end of 10 it is really a sermon based on jer 31, so read all the way through 10

Hi and READ Ezek 36 and FIND OUT what the New Covenant really means !!

I means that Israel has been setaside , and means no POPE or Purgatory or Mary or PRIESTS !!

Have you gone into the world preacding and BAPTIZING in the name of the Father and the Son and in the Holy Spirit , Matt 28:19 and teaching them to Observe whatever things I have commanded you ??

Are you doing this ?? I doubt it !!

dan p

 

[Interplanner]

I'm a bit confused by your questions, but I take what the NT says as the best interp of the OT. So I won't be going back to Ezek 36 when there are about 7 chapters worth of material telling me what it is in the NT.

What is the question about mission work for? Yes I have been on several.

God doesn't set aside nations. Israel is partially hardened, but that is, well, partial. In fact, all nations are, partially. God is done doing different things with different nations, Rom 11:30. Everything is now in and through Christ.

 

[DAN P]

I'm a bit confused by your questions, but I take what the NT says as the best interp of the OT. So I won't be going back to Ezek 36 when there are about 7 chapters worth of material telling me what it is in the NT.

What is the question about mission work for? Yes I have been on several.

God doesn't set aside nations. Israel is partially hardened, but that is, well, partial. In fact, all nations are, partially. God is done doing different things with different nations, Rom 11:30. Everything is now in and through Christ.

Hi and are you surprised that you are SCARED to read Ezek 36 :24-38 , yes you ARE !!:bang::bang::bang:

The New Covenant is ALL ISRAEL !!:rotfl::rotfl:

DAN P

 

[Interplanner]

Not at all. it is for all mankind. Does Israel only get forgiveness of sins, Mt 26:27+?

Did Christ become sin for Israel only so that it could have the righteousness of God in him? 2 Cor 5.

You must let the NT be the final interp of the OT, not your own direct work.

 

[Fireinfolding]

Hi to all , and Jesus means in Luke 4:17 Jesus spake these words !

Verse 17 , Jesus read from Luke 4 :18 , , Thne Spirit of the Lord is upon Me , to preach the gospel !!

Then verse 19 , To preach the Acceptable Year of the Lord !!

Jesus did not read any further !!

Jesus CLOSED the book of Isaiah 61:2 in in the MIDDLE of verse 2 , WHY ??

The rest of the verse says " and the Day of Venggeance " .

The Gap is because Israel was set aside so that God could FORM His Body called the Body of Christ !!

This is why TONGUES/LANGUAGES had to Cease and why Israel was set aside until the ' Time of the Gentiles be come in " Rom 11:25 and then God will again deal withe Israel as referenced in Rom 11:26 !!

So when is the Vengeance of God as it has yet to be accomplished ??

dan p

Hi Dan P

I understand that its spilt as he was to proclaim two things

Isaiah 61:2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD,

Which Jesus quotes here in Luke 4:19

Then he closed the book (of Isaiah) in Luke 4:20 because that day this was fulfilled in their hearing

That last verse is split...

The second half of Isaiah 61:2 is also to proclaim.... the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;

The vengeance part of Isiah is proclaimed here

Luk 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

Jesus only had to proclaim those two ... (the acceptable year in Luke 4:20 and day of vengeance as he declared them in Luke 21:22)

Which days were until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled, because Luke 21:24 says, And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

Everything before Luke 21:22 is just that (in respects to the days of vengeance) he just proclaimed those two things in two different places.

But you are connecting it to tongues in some way correct?

 

[Interplanner]

What if it is vengeance on Israel, not for Israel?

 

[DAN P]

Hi Dan P

I understand that its spilt as he was to proclaim two things

Isaiah 61:2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD,

Which Jesus quotes here in Luke 4:19

Then he closed the book (of Isaiah) in Luke 4:20 because that day this was fulfilled in their hearing

That last verse is split...

The second half of Isaiah 61:2 is also to proclaim.... the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;

The vengeance part of Isiah is proclaimed here

Luk 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

Jesus only had to proclaim those two ... (the acceptable year in Luke 4:20 and day of vengeance as he declared them in Luke 21:22)

Which days were until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled, because Luke 21:24 says, And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

Everything before Luke 21:22 is just that (in respects to the days of vengeance) he just proclaimed those two things in two different places.

But you are connecting it to tongues in some way correct?

Hi , and I believe that there is am[le proof that what was fulfilled was ther Beginning of Pentecost , and since Israel rejected the Counsel of God , Luke 7;30 and other Major verses , Israel was set aside and why the sign gifts of 1 Cor 13:8 CEASED and why the FUTURE TENSE is used in 1 Cor 13:8 .

This is what Pentecosalism REFUSES TO Admit !!

It is obviously that the Vengeance of God is yet FUTURE !!

DAN P

 

[Interplanner]

Sorry, DanP, no can do.

Too much of a stray thought about why tongues existed or ceased. They existed to show to unbelievers who were in Judaism that God was indeed in a mission to the nations.

There's nothing obvious about the vengeance being later at all. You have assumed it is to protect Israel and take vengeance on its enemies.

 

[DAN P]

Sorry, DanP, no can do.

Too much of a stray thought about why tongues existed or ceased. They existed to show to unbelievers who were in Judaism that God was indeed in a mission to the nations.

There's nothing obvious about the vengeance being later at all. You have assumed it is to protect Israel and take vengeance on its enemies.

Hi , and you are running again ?

Low Information students , never get ahead as they are all a STRAY thought as 1 Cor 13:8 will never be believed by Pentecostals !!:rotfl::rotfl::rotfl:

dan p

 

[serpentdove]

"Lk 4:16 He came to Nazareth. Luke acknowledged in v. 23 (see note there) that Christ had already ministered in Capernaum. Yet Luke purposely situated this episode at the beginning of his account of Christ’s public ministry. Here is an example of Luke’s ordering things logically rather than chronologically (see Introduction: Background and Setting; see note on 1:3). as His custom was. Nazareth was his hometown, so He would have been well known to all who regularly attended this synagogue.

Lk 4:18 He has anointed Me. I.e., the Spirit Himself was the anointing (vv. 1, 14).

Lk 4:19 the acceptable year of the LORD. Or, “the year of the Lord’s favor.” The passage Christ read was Is. 61:1, 2. He stopped in the middle of v. 2. The rest of the verse prophesies judgment in the day of God’s vengeance. Since that part of the verse pertains to the second advent, He did not read it." MacArthur, J., Jr. (Ed.). (1997). The MacArthur Study Bible (electronic ed., p. 1520). Nashville, TN: Word Pub.

So, be prepared (1 Thess. 5:2).

 

[Interplanner]

2nd coming or the awful events to fall on Israel in 40 years?

Actually if you read all of vs 1-3, it is mostly gospel. The day of vengeance is one line. He could have been talking about Christ's death, and Jesus may have found that a bit difficult to swallow.

The OT is not obsessed with the 2nd coming like you people are. There many, many other historic points it speaks to.

 

[DAN P]

2nd coming or the awful events to fall on Israel in 40 years?

Actually if you read all of vs 1-3, it is mostly gospel. The day of vengeance is one line. He could have been talking about Christ's death, and Jesus may have found that a bit difficult to swallow.

The OT is not obsessed with the 2nd coming like you people are. There many, many other historic points it speaks to.

Hi , and here is your OPPORTUNITY to produce a verse with your comments instead of BLOVIATING !!

DAN P

 

[Interplanner]

That vengeance line is the only line about wrath. It is mostly about the grace. So...it is very possible that the wrath Christ absorbed is what he did not read about. it is too awful.

This has to do with whether Christ had real, human feeling.