In Romans 11:34 Paul asks the question
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor?"
Then in 1 Corinthians 2:16, he repeats the question
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? but we have the mind of Christ."
But now Paul says we have the mind of Christ, so what does that mean?
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor?"
Then in 1 Corinthians 2:16, he repeats the question
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? but we have the mind of Christ."
But now Paul says we have the mind of Christ, so what does that mean?