ECT THE MEANING OF JOHN 3:16 !!

[DAN P]

This is for the those that say that we can not answer , this verse !!

John 3:16 reads like this :For God so loved world that He gave His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him should not Perish , but have everlasting life !!

#1 , In this passage there is a BEGINNING VIEW and that it began when Christ was SLAIN before the foundation of the world !! Rev 13:8 !!

#2, The first verb is in the AORIST TENSE or the Past tense , that points back to the foundation of the world !!

#3 , The words so loved the WORLD /KOSMOS means He loves Mankind or Multitude and other meanings !!

#4 ,The vebd PERISH means He does not anyone to perish !!

#5, But the verb PERISH is controlled by the SUBJECYIVE MOOD and means that not all will believe in Him and be saved !!

#6 And wen Israel has been set aside there is the FUTURE where the GENTILES will be saved under the teaching of THE GOSPEL opd the Grace of God , wnhat is called the MYSTERY !!

#7 Then there is yet , another view where the Gentiles from the Great Tribulation will be saved and live in the Mellinnial Kingdom !!

#8Then there is yet the Dispensation of the FULNEE of Time !!

dan p

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings DAN P,

This is for the those that say that we can not answer , this verse !!
John 3:16 reads like this :For God so loved world that He gave His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him should not Perish , but have everlasting life !!

I usually browse and answer in the Religion section and not the E.C.T. section. In actual fact this will be my first Post in this section. I browsed and found a subject that interested me, not that I wanted to particularly state any new perspective, but simply John 3:16 is one of those well-known verses with great significance.

But when I read your explanation of this I was astounded, not knowing altogether how you take a message that is simple, straight-forward and pure, and then you seem to inject all manner of your teachings into this statement. John 3:16 simply states that God, in his love to man, gave his only begotten Son, so that whoever believes into Him would not perish, but have everlasting life. There is no real need to explain these terms, as they are clear by themselves, and there certainly is no grounds to add all that you have added.

Let us compare your explanation:

#1 , In this passage there is a BEGINNING VIEW and that it began when Christ was SLAIN before the foundation of the world !! Rev 13:8 !!

The focus of John 3:16 is the crucifixion, death and resurrection of Jesus – this is how and where God gave his Son. This is also based upon the earlier comment and context of John 3:14-15 of the serpent being lifted up in the wilderness. Your suggestion of the foundation of the world, even if true, is not mentioned in the context of John 3:16. Why complicate this explanation?

#2, The first verb is in the AORIST TENSE or the Past tense , that points back to the foundation of the world !!

Again you mention the foundation of the world, but your claim seems to be dubious and obscure, based on the Greek tense. There is no mention of the foundation of the world in John 3:16.

#3 , The words so loved the WORLD /KOSMOS means He loves Mankind or Multitude and other meanings !!

Seems fair enough, but not sure of “other meanings”.

#4 ,The vebd PERISH means He does not anyone to perish !!

Seems fair enough, but to add briefly my perspective, I believe that if we are not ultimately saved, we will actually perish, that is return to the dust.

#5, But the verb PERISH is controlled by the SUBJECYIVE MOOD and means that not all will believe in Him and be saved !!

Seems fair enough.

#6 And wen Israel has been set aside there is the FUTURE where the GENTILES will be saved under the teaching of THE GOSPEL opd the Grace of God , wnhat is called the MYSTERY !!

Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.

#7 Then there is yet , another view where the Gentiles from the Great Tribulation will be saved and live in the Mellinnial Kingdom !!

Again, it seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.

#8Then there is yet the Dispensation of the FULNEE of Time !!

Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.

So in summary, you have not simply and clearly explained this important verse, but imposed your theology upon it.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[marhig]

This is for the those that say that we can not answer , this verse !!

John 3:16 reads like this :For God so loved world that He gave His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him should not Perish , but have everlasting life !!

#1 , In this passage there is a BEGINNING VIEW and that it began when Christ was SLAIN before the foundation of the world !! Rev 13:8 !!

#2, The first verb is in the AORIST TENSE or the Past tense , that points back to the foundation of the world !!

#3 , The words so loved the WORLD /KOSMOS means He loves Mankind or Multitude and other meanings !!

#4 ,The vebd PERISH means He does not anyone to perish !!

#5, But the verb PERISH is controlled by the SUBJECYIVE MOOD and means that not all will believe in Him and be saved !!

#6 And wen Israel has been set aside there is the FUTURE where the GENTILES will be saved under the teaching of THE GOSPEL opd the Grace of God , wnhat is called the MYSTERY !!

#7 Then there is yet , another view where the Gentiles from the Great Tribulation will be saved and live in the Mellinnial Kingdom !!

#8Then there is yet the Dispensation of the FULNEE of Time !!

dan p

It's simple, it means because God loves us, he sent Jesus to bare witness to the truth and preach the gospel, and Whosoever should truly believe in him shall not perish.

It's as easy as that!

 

[DAN P]

It's simple, it means because God loves us, he sent Jesus to bare witness to the truth and preach the gospel, and Whosoever should truly believe in him shall not perish.

It's as easy as that!

Hi and I only did this OP in the spur of the moment because some say that we avoid scriptures like John and that we only teach about Paul !!

dan p

 

[beloved57]

This is for the those that say that we can not answer , this verse !!

John 3:16 reads like this :For God so loved world that He gave His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him should not Perish , but have everlasting life !!

#1 , In this passage there is a BEGINNING VIEW and that it began when Christ was SLAIN before the foundation of the world !! Rev 13:8 !!

#2, The first verb is in the AORIST TENSE or the Past tense , that points back to the foundation of the world !!

#3 , The words so loved the WORLD /KOSMOS means He loves Mankind or Multitude and other meanings !!

#4 ,The vebd PERISH means He does not anyone to perish !!

#5, But the verb PERISH is controlled by the SUBJECYIVE MOOD and means that not all will believe in Him and be saved !!

#6 And wen Israel has been set aside there is the FUTURE where the GENTILES will be saved under the teaching of THE GOSPEL opd the Grace of God , wnhat is called the MYSTERY !!

#7 Then there is yet , another view where the Gentiles from the Great Tribulation will be saved and live in the Mellinnial Kingdom !!

#8Then there is yet the Dispensation of the FULNEE of Time !!

dan p

A bunch of Junk

 

[DAN P]

Greetings DAN P, I usually browse and answer in the Religion section and not the E.C.T. section. In actual fact this will be my first Post in this section. I browsed and found a subject that interested me, not that I wanted to particularly state any new perspective, but simply John 3:16 is one of those well-known verses with great significance.

But when I read your explanation of this I was astounded, not knowing altogether how you take a message that is simple, straight-forward and pure, and then you seem to inject all manner of your teachings into this statement. John 3:16 simply states that God, in his love to man, gave his only begotten Son, so that whoever believes into Him would not perish, but have everlasting life. There is no real need to explain these terms, as they are clear by themselves, and there certainly is no grounds to add all that you have added.

Let us compare your explanation: The focus of John 3:16 is the crucifixion, death and resurrection of Jesus – this is how and where God gave his Son. This is also based upon the earlier comment and context of John 3:14-15 of the serpent being lifted up in the wilderness. Your suggestion of the foundation of the world, even if true, is not mentioned in the context of John 3:16. Why complicate this explanation?
Again you mention the foundation of the world, but your claim seems to be dubious and obscure, based on the Greek tense. There is no mention of the foundation of the world in John 3:16.
Seems fair enough, but not sure of “other meanings”.
Seems fair enough, but to add briefly my perspective, I believe that if we are not ultimately saved, we will actually perish, that is return to the dust.
Seems fair enough.
Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.
Again, it seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.
Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.

So in summary, you have not simply and clearly explained this important verse, but imposed your theology upon it.

Kind regards
Trevor

Hi and I just receive your reply and thanks for reading and I did a poor job in presenting my OP !!

I believe that what I wrote is correct to manhy dispenastionalist , who will understand my OP !!

There are many GAPS in John 3:16 , one BEFORE THE FOUNDATION of the world , and in the AGE of Jesus ministry , and then when thre Body of Christ is Departed , and How Gentiles , the Sheep are saved in Matt 25 and why the Goats are LOST and then hoe Gentiles are saved in the Millennium and then the Dispensation of the FULNESS of time in Eph 1:10 !!

Only dispensationalist up to speed will be able to understand !!

The biggest difference between me and others is , when Israel was set aside ,and when the Body of Christ began and Isa 6 , and Luke 13:6-9 show why Israel was set aside and there are many other verse that explain the same thing !!

dan p

 

[patrick jane]

A bunch of Junk

You are the biggest blasphemer ever to be on TOL and you are most lost -

 

[DAN P]

A bunch of Junk

Hi and thanks for your input and you are the biggest BLOOTER yet !!

dan p

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again DAN P,

I believe that what I wrote is correct to manhy dispenastionalist , who will understand my OP !!

There are many GAPS in John 3:16 , one BEFORE THE FOUNDATION of the world , and in the AGE of Jesus ministry , and then when thre Body of Christ is Departed , and How Gentiles , the Sheep are saved in Matt 25 and why the Goats are LOST and then hoe Gentiles are saved in the Millennium and then the Dispensation of the FULNESS of time in Eph 1:10 !!

Only dispensationalist up to speed will be able to understand !!

The biggest difference between me and others is , when Israel was set aside ,and when the Body of Christ began and Isa 6 , and Luke 13:6-9 show why Israel was set aside and there are many other verse that explain the same thing !!

I certainly do not understand your perspective. I believe that there is one Gospel from Eden summarised for example in Genesis 3:15. Perhaps for us a simple summary is found in the following:
Acts 8:5-6,12 (KJV): 5 Then Philip went down to the city of Samaria, and preached Christ unto them. 6 And the people with one accord gave heed unto those things which Philip spake, hearing and seeing the miracles which he did. 12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.

And a similar summary describes Paul’s preaching:
Acts 28:30-31 (KJV): 30 And Paul dwelt two whole years in his own hired house, and received all that came in unto him, 31 Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him.

These two elements of the gospel, the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the things concerning the name of Jesus Christ can also be discerned in the preaching of Peter in his speeches in Acts 2 and 3. One gospel, one method of salvation, a belief of the gospel, justification by faith.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[DAN P]

Greetings again DAN P, I certainly do not understand your perspective. I believe that there is one Gospel from Eden summarised for example in Genesis 3:15. Perhaps for us a simple summary is found in the following:
Acts 8:5-6,12 (KJV): 5 Then Philip went down to the city of Samaria, and preached Christ unto them. 6 And the people with one accord gave heed unto those things which Philip spake, hearing and seeing the miracles which he did. 12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.

And a similar summary describes Paul’s preaching:
Acts 28:30-31 (KJV): 30 And Paul dwelt two whole years in his own hired house, and received all that came in unto him, 31 Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him.

These two elements of the gospel, the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the things concerning the name of Jesus Christ can also be discerned in the preaching of Peter in his speeches in Acts 2 and 3. One gospel, one method of salvation, a belief of the gospel, justification by faith.

Kind regards
Trevor

Hi and here is the correct meaning as I see it !!

In Acts 2:38 and in Acts 8:5-6 they are still LAW KEEPERS and Un-deniable !!

Paul was not yet saved , so they could not hear about the MYSTERY of Col 1:25 and 26 !!

Water Baptism was still in practice and under Grace as written in Eph 4:5 there is only ONE BAPTIZER and that is the Holy Spirit !!

dan p

 

[Grosnick Marowbe]

Greetings DAN P, I usually browse and answer in the Religion section and not the E.C.T. section. In actual fact this will be my first Post in this section. I browsed and found a subject that interested me, not that I wanted to particularly state any new perspective, but simply John 3:16 is one of those well-known verses with great significance.

But when I read your explanation of this I was astounded, not knowing altogether how you take a message that is simple, straight-forward and pure, and then you seem to inject all manner of your teachings into this statement. John 3:16 simply states that God, in his love to man, gave his only begotten Son, so that whoever believes into Him would not perish, but have everlasting life. There is no real need to explain these terms, as they are clear by themselves, and there certainly is no grounds to add all that you have added.

Let us compare your explanation: The focus of John 3:16 is the crucifixion, death, and resurrection of Jesus – this is how and where God gave his Son. This is also based upon the earlier comment and context of John 3:14-15 of the serpent being lifted up in the wilderness. Your suggestion of the foundation of the world, even if true, is not mentioned in the context of John 3:16. Why complicate this explanation?
Again you mention the foundation of the world, but your claim seems to be dubious and obscure, based on the Greek tense. There is no mention of the foundation of the world in John 3:16.
Seems fair enough, but not sure of “other meanings”.
Seems fair enough, but to add briefly my perspective, I believe that if we are not ultimately saved, we will actually perish, that is return to the dust.
Seems fair enough.
Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.
Again, it seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.
Seems that you are imposing some form of dispensational teaching here, and yet there is no ground in John 3:16 to support this.

So in summary, you have not simply and clearly explained this important verse, but imposed your theology upon it.

Kind regards
Trevor

You have a problem. The first four books of the Bible: Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (Known as the four Gospels) were pertaining to, "The Lost Sheep of the House of Israel," only. Therefore, one must either, rationalize what John 3:16 means or study into the background of the verse like DanP did. The verse was not pertaining to the Body of Christ because, in order to have been speaking to them, Christ wouldn't have said He came only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel and Christ wouldn't have told His followers not to go to them. If the Kingdom Message was for the WORLD, why didn't Christ make the Gentiles privy of His message too?

 

[Grosnick Marowbe]

The answer is, when Christ met Paul on the Road to Damascus, He gave Paul another "SPECIAL" Message to be preached. That being, The Grace Message. Paul first took it to the Jews and they rejected it. Henceforth, Paul went to the Gentles with his "Grace Gospel" and they believed. Therefore, Paul was known as the "Apostle to the Gentiles."

 

[Danoh]

You have a problem. The first four books of the Bible: Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (Known as the four Gospels) were pertaining to, "The Lost Sheep of the House of Israel," only. Therefore, one must either, rationalize what John 3:16 means or study into the background of the verse like DanP did. The verse was not pertaining to the Body of Christ because, in order to have been speaking to them, Christ wouldn't have said He came only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel and Christ wouldn't have told His followers not to go to them. If the Kingdom Message was for the WORLD, why didn't Christ make the Gentiles privy of His message too?

Not that GM the parrot can actually break down what John 3:16 is talking about.

It's his same ol fraudulent approach - appear to know in post after post - when obviously he has never proven he actually knows beyond some other man's labor parroted in generic form by him.

But, as long as he asserts what at least appears to be or agree with the party line of some, said some accept him as the genuine article.

He is like some con artist arriving in Mayberry to take advantage of their simple trust in those who appear to be like them.

Fact of the matter?

Sooner or later, would be emperor Trumps are proven to have no cloths :chuckle:

In contrast, Lazy Afternoon's supposed "uncircumcision is made circumcision."

In that, in contrast to GM's obvious fraud, Lazy at least obviously actually does study a thing out in Scripture.

Her labor, obviously her own.

Not that that alone is enough...

But it is...a start I for one, can agree with.

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again DAN P and Greetings Grosnick Marowbe,

Hi and here is the correct meaning as I see it !!
In Acts 2:38 and in Acts 8:5-6 they are still LAW KEEPERS and Un-deniable !!

The Samaritans of Acts 8:5-6 were not Law Keepers. They had earlier rejected Jesus when he was going up to Jerusalem, the centre of the law and law-keeping. The newly converted Jews of Acts 2:38 were not saved because of law-keeping, but they believed the gospel preached by Peter concerning the crucified and resurrected Messiah, who would return to sit on David’s throne.

Paul was not yet saved, so they could not hear about the MYSTERY of Col 1:25 and 26 !!

The mystery was not a new gospel, but relates to the fact that the gospel was to be opened up unto the Gentiles.

Water Baptism was still in practice and under Grace as written in Eph 4:5 there is only ONE BAPTIZER and that is the Holy Spirit !!

Paul and his companions continued to administer water baptism after those, that heard the preaching, had faith in the gospel as the means of identification with the crucifixion, death, burial and resurrection of Jesus.

The answer is, when Christ met Paul on the Road to Damascus, He gave Paul another "SPECIAL" Message to be preached. That being, The Grace Message. Paul first took it to the Jews and they rejected it. Henceforth, Paul went to the Gentles with his "Grace Gospel" and they believed. Therefore, Paul was known as the "Apostle to the Gentiles."

A major element of grace is the forgiveness of sins, and this has operated from Eden when Adam and Eve were clothed with skins, and Abel offered an acceptable offering. Grace is another way of saying that Abraham’s sins were forgiven when he was justified by faith Genesis 15:6.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[DAN P]

Greetings again DAN P and Greetings Grosnick Marowbe,

The Samaritans of Acts 8:5-6 were not Law Keepers. They had earlier rejected Jesus when he was going up to Jerusalem, the centre of the law and law-keeping. The newly converted Jews of Acts 2:38 were not saved because of law-keeping, but they believed the gospel preached by Peter concerning the crucified and resurrected Messiah, who would return to sit on David’s throne.
The mystery was not a new gospel, but relates to the fact that the gospel was to be opened up unto the Gentiles.
Paul and his companions continued to administer water baptism after those, that heard the preaching, had faith in the gospel as the means of identification with the crucifixion, death, burial and resurrection of Jesus.
A major element of grace is the forgiveness of sins, and this has operated from Eden when Adam and Eve were clothed with skins, and Abel offered an acceptable offering. Grace is another way of saying that Abraham’s sins were forgiven when he was justified by faith Genesis 15:6.

Kind regards
Trevor

Hi and you are incorrect , so IF Paul preached the same message as Peter , give a verse as to what message Peter preached and a verse where Paul was given the same message ??

dan p

 

[TweetyBird]

You have a problem. The first four books of the Bible: Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (Known as the four Gospels) were pertaining to, "The Lost Sheep of the House of Israel," only. Therefore, one must either, rationalize what John 3:16 means or study into the background of the verse like DanP did. The verse was not pertaining to the Body of Christ because, in order to have been speaking to them, Christ wouldn't have said He came only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel and Christ wouldn't have told His followers not to go to them. If the Kingdom Message was for the WORLD, why didn't Christ make the Gentiles privy of His message too?

He did. John 3:16 states that God gave His only begotten son to the WORLD.

Secondly, if Jesus only came for the lost sheep of the house of Israel, why in chap 4 did He go to the Samaritans and preach the Gospel?

Thirdly, why did Jesus say that the Kingdom would be taken from Israel and given to a nation who would bear fruit?

Fourthly, why did Jesus say that the Kingdom would be preached to all the world?

Fifthly, why did Jesus command His disciples to go into all the world and preach the Gospel to all nations?

 

[TweetyBird]

Hi and you are incorrect , so IF Paul preached the same message as Peter , give a verse as to what message Peter preached and a verse where Paul was given the same message ??

dan p

How many do you need to prove it? Or are going to dismiss them with you "aorist tense" thingie.

 

[dodge]

He did. John 3:16 states that God gave His only begotten son to the WORLD.

Secondly, if Jesus only came for the lost sheep of the house of Israel, why in chap 4 did He go to the Samaritans and preach the Gospel?

Thirdly, why did Jesus say that the Kingdom would be taken from Israel and given to a nation who would bear fruit?

Fourthly, why did Jesus say that the Kingdom would be preached to all the world?

Fifthly, why did Jesus command His disciples to go into all the world and preach the Gospel to all nations?

Now you have gone and done it you actually tried to present the scripture as it actually is and in context. You should have made it a "mystery" then the Madist would have swooned and accepted your message.

 

[TweetyBird]

:chuckle:

Now you have gone and done it you actually tried to present the scripture as it actually is and in context. You should have made it a "mystery" then the Madist would have swooned and accepted your message.

:chuckle:

 

[DAN P]

How many do you need to prove it? Or are going to dismiss them with you "aorist tense" thingie.

Hi and the AORIST TENSE just means something that happened at a certain point in time !!

Are you sacred to say what the question means ??

Or you do not have one , is what I believe GRASSHOPPER or are you just CALLOW ??

DAN P