KJ-ONLYite claims: Enyart does not believe The Bible is inerrant

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Johnthebaptist

New member
Dear loudhardt

Will, thanks for your kind opening remarks. But sadly, you are willing to misrepresent me with this title since I stand with the vast majority of fundamentalist Christian scholars and theologians and pastors who reject KJ Only, and believe that God's Word is inerrant only in its original autographs. I use the 1611 KJV quite often, and its inclusion of the Apocrypha, and also its frequent margin notes, both indicate that its own translators did not believe that they were producing an inerrant translation. I believe that your KJ Only obsession keeps you as an immature Christian, majoring in the minors, and distracting you from a substantive Christian life and influence on the world. A KJ Only pastor requested permission to present his position to us, so we invited him to Denver Bible Church for two weeks, and after the first week of his being unable to answer our simple questions, he never returned for his second opportunity. -Pastor Bob Enyart, Denver Bible Church & KGOV.com

This is Bob Enyart's response on the first page. clearly from this statement he believe that the original autographs were without error as written.

The KJV Only folks are saying that because he does not believe in the inerrancy of the King James Version, he does not believe in an inerrant Bible. But this is not the case. The KJV Only folks do not understand the process of inspiration and preservation, or will not accept any thing , but KJV Only.God bless
John
 

servent101

New member
So your all afraid to think about this?

In other words textual criticism must be done on the church fathers in order to see how they attest to the New Testament text. (Daniel B. Wallace)

Why not read what is written to someone who would of "heard it read" as most people could not read back at that time, and as well choose someone with the same "education and circumstances" of the people the Letters were written too, and then ask that particular person who was of the same mindset or as clost too as possible as the people the Word was Written too, what doctrine they can deduce from what was Written?

With Christ's Love

Servent101
 

brandplucked

New member
"only the originals" nonsense

"only the originals" nonsense

louhardt said:
WOW! That is a major response. Actually, the absolutely only thing I am really asking (and I don't mean to disrespect your well-thought-out response) is Does Bob Enyart believe that, in its original state, the inspired scriptures that were written down, were without error.

Being a newby to this forum I am overwhelmed by the amount of coverage that Mr. Enyart gets. I decided that would be a good question to ask based on some of the comments. So, I guess you could say I am asking about Mr. Enyart's beliefs rather than asking how it really is.

Make sense?

Thanks!


Hi lou, I appreciate your interest in this most vital topic about the inspiration of the Bible.

To simply answer your question, if you look closely at what Bob said, he said "only the original autographs ARE inspired." He didn't even say "WERE" inspired. He speaks in the present tense (are/is inspired) as though they actually existed and he has them right there on his desk at home.

Let's make this very clear. THERE ARE NO ORIGINALS, and all the originals never once were ever placed into a single Book, so in effect, there never was a Bible (a book) consisting of the originals.

The only reasonable and logical conclusion to Bob's beliefs about The Bible is that "There IS no inspired, infallible, complete, and inerrant Bible on this earth today."

Now, if brother Bob thinks I am putting words in his mouth which are not exactly what he really thinks, then I suggest he come on board to disabuse me of my profound ignorance and misunderstanding, and set the record straight.

However, it is clear from his own statements, that he does not believe any Bible in any language IS NOW the inerrant, infallible words of God.

So if his site says something like "The Bible IS inspired" he is being deceitful regarding what he really believes. He has not identified what he means by The Bible, and he does not believe any Bible IS inspired. If it is inspired, then it has to be inerrant, infallible and always true. Bob does not believe such a thing exists and he preaches from a book he does not believe to be the infallible words of God.


God bless,

Will K
 

Hasan_ibn_Sabah

New member
There is only one infallible and inerrant Word of God and He doesn't come with leather binding and hasn't been published by Thomas Crown Publishing Inc.,
 

brandplucked

New member
John's usual twisting of facts

John's usual twisting of facts

Johnthebaptist said:
Dear loudhardt



This is Bob Enyart's response on the first page. clearly from this statement he believe that the original autographs were without error as written.

The KJV Only folks are saying that because he does not believe in the inerrancy of the King James Version, he does not believe in an inerrant Bible. But this is not the case. The KJV Only folks do not understand the process of inspiration and preservation, or will not accept any thing , but KJV Only.God bless
John

John, first of all, Bob did NOT say "the original autographs WERE without error as written."

He said IS, not "were".

Secondly, even if he had said "WERE without error", this statement still implicitly denies the existence of any Bible without error NOW.

Thirdly, as is your custom, you twisted the facts. If by saying he does not believe in the inerrancy of the KJB, this does NOT mean that he does NOT believe in an inerrant Bible, then why doesn't Bob (or you for that matter) identify what this alleged inerrant Bible IS for us?

Why? Because neither you nor Bob believes such a thing as an inerrant Bible exists.

John, your faculties have become unhinged. You tell us on the one hand that the King James Bible and the Textus Receptus are "completely trustworthy", and then on the other hand tell us they have hundreds of textual errors and false readings in them.

You have a really funny way of using words: "completely trustworthy" = "hundreds of errors".

You also tell us you have "nothing against the KJV", and then turn around and criticize it's "hundreds of errors".

John, hopefully most of us are not yet that stupid as to fall for the phoniness of your "good words and fair speeches" by which you deceive the hearts of the simple. See Romans 16:18.

You yourself do not believe any Bible or any text is now the inerrant word of God. You post junk and misinformation from that clown Daniel Wallace as though he were some kind of an oracle from God Almighty, yet Daniel Wallace himself does not believe in an infallible Book. Dan Wallace is constantly changing the Hebrew texts and making up his own perverted bible version which in turn differs from ALL OTHERS out there in both texts and meanings.

This is the type of guy you idolize.

May God have mercy on you and open your eyes to how you are destroying the faith of God's elect.

Will K
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
Brandplucked

John, first of all, Bob did NOT say "the original autographs WERE without error as written."

He said IS, not "were".

Secondly, even if he had said "WERE without error", this statement still implicitly denies the existence of any Bible without error NOW.

Will, to make the distinction between "is" and "was" is knit picky. Beside you nor I know for sure that no orignals exist. It could be that they have not yet been excavated or found.

Let's make this very clear. THERE ARE NO ORIGINALS, and all the originals never once were ever placed into a single Book, so in effect, there never was a Bible (a book) consisting of the originals.

From this statement I almost gather that you do no believe in the orignial autographs. At any rate to you it seems that they are not important for the process of inspiration or preservation. Without the originals you would not have a trustworthy translation of the Bible today.

Thirdly, as is your custom, you twisted the facts. If by saying he does not believe in the inerrancy of the KJB, this does NOT mean that he does NOT believe in an inerrant Bible, then why doesn't Bob (or you for that matter) identify what this alleged inerrant Bible IS for us?

Why? Because neither you nor Bob believes such a thing as an inerrant Bible exists.

John, your faculties have become unhinged. You tell us on the one hand that the King James Bible and the Textus Receptus are "completely trustworthy", and then on the other hand tell us they have hundreds of textual errors and false readings in them.

You have a really funny way of using words: "completely trustworthy" = "hundreds of errors

As always will, you take a flying leap and make assertions we never said, you must do this because you have nothing else to come back with.

Yes, we believe in an inerrant Bible as originally written, yes be believe God perserved his Word. Beganing with pure originals and preserving trustworthy copies. Inspiration is not in the translation, but the original manuscripts. What we have in the copies of the manuscripts we have and the tranlations is preservation. There is not variation of truth in any of the manuscripts. But you cannot accept that.

You and other KJV Only folks major on the Siniaticus and the Vaticanus as if those were the only two manuscripts that textual critics consider. The face is that they consider These two as well as the all the papyri and all of the majority text and various manuscripts from other lanuages. I can look in the textuall apparatus of my greek New Testament and see this.

[/QUOTE]John, hopefully most of us are not yet that stupid as to fall for the phoniness of your "good words and fair speeches" by which you deceive the hearts of the simple. See Romans 16:18.

You yourself do not believe any Bible or any text is now the inerrant word of God. You post junk and misinformation from that clown Daniel Wallace as though he were some kind of an oracle from God Almighty, yet Daniel Wallace himself does not believe in an infallible Book. Dan Wallace is constantly changing the Hebrew texts and making up his own perverted bible version which in turn differs from ALL OTHERS out there in both texts and meanings.
You have to attacked us in your insecurity.
 

Peter A V

New member
KJVO's don't understand?

KJVO's don't understand?

Johnthebaptist said:
...The KJV Only folks are saying that because he does not believe in the inerrancy of the King James Version, he does not believe in an inerrant Bible. But this is not the case. The KJV Only folks do not understand the process of inspiration and preservation, or will not accept any thing , but KJV Only.God bless
John

That is a bit false there.Just because we don't agree with you,does not mean we don't understand.We simply believe the Bible;that it is the word of God;we also believe what God said in his word about his word.But you don't.You would like to change it.You would like to critisize it.

Just go to any KJV site,and you will see we do understand the issue of "inspiration" and "preservasion."Try this site by Dr.Holland.
http://www.purewords.org/kjb1611/html/holland.htm
Then go to the Manuscript Lessons and click on #5
 

brandplucked

New member
"oldest and best" false argument

"oldest and best" false argument

Johnthebaptist said:
Brandplucked



You are funny and give the response of most KJV Only who use twisted facts. It is clear from manuscriptural evidence that the Alexanderian text was the earliest.

"In textual criticism there are three categories of external evidence: the Greek manuscripts, the early translations into other languages, and the quotations of the New Testament found in the church fathers' writings. If the majority text view is right, then one would expect to find this text form (often known as the Byzantine text) in the earliest Greek manuscripts, in the earliest versions, and in the earliest church fathers. Not only would one expect to find it there, but also one would expect it to be in a majority of manuscripts, versions, and fathers.

But that is not what is found. Among extant Greek manuscripts, what is today the majority text did not become a majority until the ninth century. In fact, as far as the extant witnesses reveal, the majority text did not exist in the first four centuries. Not only this, but for the letters of Paul, not even one majority text manuscript exists from before the ninth century. To embrace the majority text for the Pauline Epistles, then, requires an 800-year leap of faith.

When Westcott and Hort developed their theory of textual criticism, only one papyrus manuscript was known to them. Since that time almost 100 have been discovered. More than fifty of these came from before the middle of the fourth century. Yet not one belongs to the majority text. The Westcott-Hort theory, with its many flaws (which all textual critics today acknowledge), was apparently still right on its basic tenet: the Byzantine texttype--or majority text--did not exist in the first three centuries. The evidence can be visualized as follows, with the width of the horizontal bars indicating the relative number of extant manuscripts from each century." ( Daniel B. Wallace).



John, you are merely parroting the Alexandrian line, and this line of yours keeps changing. You seem to skip over much of the information I and Peter lay out. Peter has shown that even the early papyrus evidence (all of which comes from one small area in Egypt, and is considered a merely local text from a hotbed of Arian heretics)...that the papyrus evidence is a very mixed bag, with the Textus Receptus readiings often predominating over the Alexandrian.

You totally skipped over what even Dr. Hort himself said. This is from Hort's own words! I will repeat it for you. And then you totally missed what the NKJV "scholars" said about the very same evidence. All we have is your OPINION, and it doesn't line up with the known facts.

Now, once again John, and Pay Attention this time.

Even Dr. Hort of the famed Westcott Hort text said: "The fundamental Text of late extant Greek MSS generally is beyond all question identical with the dominant Antiochian or
Graeco-Syrian Text of the second half of the 4th century." (Hort, The Factor of Geneology, pg 92---as cited by Burgon, Revision Revised, pg 257).

Dean Burgon immediately comments: "We request, in passing, that the foregoing statement may be carefully noted. The Traditional Greek Text of the New Testament, ---the TEXTUS
RECEPTUS, in short--is, according to Dr. Hort, `BEYOND ALL QUESTION the TEXT OF THE SECOND HALF OF THE FOURTH CENTURY.'

John, the TR is identical with the dominant text that existed when your two "oldest and best" manuscripts were written! In other words, at the very time Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were penned, the Byzantine texts were already the predominate texts of the Christian church!
And this comes from Dr. Hort himself.

Then we have the words from the NKJV editors which directly contradict both James White and Dan Wallace.

Here they are again. Pay attention this time.




"Scholars" who have all gone to the same seminaries and learned the same material, will often directly contradict the "findings" of other scholars. In the following quotes found in the 1982 edition of the NKJV. Keep in mind that these people are not KJB onlies.

In the preface of the NKJV, which was translated by some of the
same men who translated the NIV, it says on page vii "The
manuscript preferences cited in many contemporary translations
are due to recent reliance on a relatively few manuscripts
discovered in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Dependence on these manuscripts, especially two, the Sinaitic
and Vatican manuscripts, is due to the greater age of these
documents.

However, in spite of their age, some scholars have reason to
doubt their faithfulness to the autographs, since they often
disagree with one another and show other signs of unreliability.

On the other hand, the great majority of existing manuscripts are
in substantial agreement. Even though many are late, and none
are earlier than the fifth century, MOST OF THEIR READINGS
ARE VERIFIED BY ANCIENT PAPYRI, ANCIENT VERSIONS, AND
QUOTATIONS OF THE EARLY CHURCH FATHERS. This large
body of manuscripts is the source of the Greek text underlying
the King James Bible. It is the Greek text used by
Greek-speaking churches for many centuries, presently known
as the Textus Receptus, or Received Text, of the New
Testament.

John, the simple reason your Sinaiticus and Vaticanus mss. survived was because they were recognized as corrupt and inferiour, and so were not used. Sinaiticus itself shows that anywhere from 8 to 10 different scribes tried to correct and revise it, and apparently gave up on it.

The true texts were USED, copied, passed around, and handled, and that is why they ceased to exist. This is just common sense. If you use something it wears out. If you don't use a manuscript, it will stick around.

Your Sinaiticus and Vaticanus disagree with each other well over 4000 times in the New Testament alone, and many of these differences are entire verses found in one and not in the other. If these are your "oldest and best" then we are in a world of hurt.

The end result is that neither you, nor James White, nor Daniel Wallace have any Bible or any text that any of you believe is the inerrant, preserved, infallible words of God, and each of you differs from the other as to what "the originals" may have looked like.

Get over yourselves and begin the believe what The Book says about itself. God said He would preserve His wordS in a Book here on this earth. He either did this or He lied. If He did not lie to us, then where is this Book today?


Will K
 

Peter A V

New member
Care to back that up?

Care to back that up?

Huldrych said:
Honestly, Pete, you'd do well not to quote Riplinger too much. I've seen how she handles foreign language Bibles. From that, it's obvious to me she does not check out her facts very thoroughly (e.g. saying the Tepl was based on the Textus Receptus, and therefore at least similar to the KJV--it is most certainly not). :shocked:

Her scholarship is worse than Ruckman's--of course, at least she has an excuse--her degree was in, what, Interior Decorating?

jth

Please back your statement up.Without any proof,all it is ,is false ad hominem attacks.
All you are doing is appealing to your own personal prejudices and interests.
All you are doing is attacking the people's charachter rather than replying to their arguments.Face up man to man and man to woman.If you have something to say to them,tell them.But don't go behind their back when you have no answers.
 

brandplucked

New member
God's perfect Book

God's perfect Book

Hi Peter, just a note. Thanks for the charts you put up and your comments regarding the truth of God's preserved words. Much appreciated.


John, I could comment at great length about your contradictory and false statements, but I will try to briefly note a couple of things.

Johnthebaptist said:
Brandplucked
Will, to make the distinction between "is" and "was" is knit picky. Beside you nor I know for sure that no orignals exist. It could be that they have not yet been excavated or found.


So, Johh, I guess you believe in "The Buried Bible" that no one has ever seen. Congratulations. At least you are being consistent here.

John says: "Without the originals you would not have a trustworthy translation of the Bible today."

Uh, John. Aren't you contradicting yourself again? You tell us we would not have a trustworthy translation without the originals. Then you admit we do not have the originals, and before you told us all that the Textus Receptus behind the King James Bible is "completely trustworthy". Does anyone else see what happens to the minds of people who begin to doubt God's Book?




John says: "Yes, we believe in an inerrant Bible as originally written, yes be believe God perserved his Word. Beganing with pure originals and preserving trustworthy copies. Inspiration is not in the translation, but the original manuscripts. What we have in the copies of the manuscripts we have and the tranlations is preservation. There is not variation of truth in any of the manuscripts. But you cannot accept that."

John, the only "inerrant Bible" you believe in, you admit does not exist or is not yet found. You also pontificate "inspiration is not in the translation". Where did you get this gem of distilled wisdom? Certainly not from the Bible I read. If it is God's true words, then it is inspired, whether translated or not. The Bible itself has many examples of where the translation is inspired.

By your own admissioin your "trustworthy copies" include the Textus Receptus, yet you try to tell us it has hundreds of textual errors and false reading in it. If "Preservation" means "God's words are out there somewhere mixed up with a bunch of other words that are not original,( except for some that have been lost), and we are not really sure which ones are which", then this is like saying God's words are preserved in Webster's Complete Dictionary. They are in there somewhere, mixed with many others that are not, and out of order, but Hey, that's what God meant by Preservation.

We are not talking about 5 or 6 words added or omitted from the Scriptures. We are talking about anywhere from 15 to 40 entire verses from just the New Testament that are in dispute, Plus another 3000 to 4000 words in the N.T. And then we have the issues of the Old Testament. Every modern version I have looked at, including the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV and Holman Standard, ALL frequently reject the Hebrew readings, and not always in the same places. NO two of them are the same, and the nasb, niv, and nkjv all keep changing their texts from one edition to the next.


John, your last comment is a real knee slapper. You, my friend, are flat out lying. You said: "There is not variation of truth in any of the manuscripts. But you cannot accept that."


John, if your mind has slipped from its moorings to this extent, there is little hope of recovery. The more you post, the more you contradict yourself. Your whole way of thinking is contrary to what the Book says about itself.

May God have mercy on His people and grant the faith to believe the promises of God to preserve His words in a Book here on this earth that we can know, and read, and believe.

Will K
 

Huldrych

New member
Peter A V said:
Please back your statement up.Without any proof,all it is ,is false ad hominem attacks.

http://www.ekkcom.com/gail24.htm it's one in a series of questions answered by Riplinger in her book, "Which Bible is God's Word?"

This particular page answers a question regarding Nestle's text, to which she responds with her stance that it is inferior simply because it is not the traditional text, which underlies the KJV. The page closes with a list of foreign language Bibles that supposedly agree with the KJV:

God has spoken to men around the world through a text like the KJV in the German Tepl Bible, the Italian Diodati, the French Olivetan Bible, the Hungarian Erdosi Bible, the Spanish Valera Bible, the Polish Visoly Bible, the De Grave Bible in Holland, the Russian Holy Synodal Bible, the German Luther Bible, and the Gottshcalkson Bible of Iceland. These all agree with the readings of the King James Version.

I do wish Riplinger would quote her sources, because it is highly doubtful that she herself has read any of the above. Certainly not the Tepl--finding just the reprint of the text made in the 1880s is difficult (there are only a handful of universities that have it--I have a scanned copy of it through a project I was working on to make it available electronically).

At any rate, I did a study for a friend comparing what he considered "errors" in the KJV with certain Bibles of the Reformation. I threw in the Tepl as well, just for kicks. Out of some 64 verses compared, Reformation Bibles (Luther, Zürcher, Tyndale, de Reina) lined up with the KJV some 79%-83% of the time.

The Tepl did the worst of the lot, with an agreement rate of only 40%. If it were based on the traditional text, we would see a better agreement rate than this.

Does that sound like "a text like the KJV?"

I'll be happy to post the whole bit of research I did, if you want.

jth
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
Brandplucked

John, you are merely parroting the Alexandrian line, and this line of yours keeps changing. You seem to skip over much of the information I and Peter lay out. Peter has shown that even the early papyrus evidence (all of which comes from one small area in Egypt, and is considered a merely local text from a hotbed of Arian heretics)...that the papyrus evidence is a very mixed bag, with the Textus Receptus readiings often predominating over the Alexandrian.

What information? Show me some facts that refute what I and most others say about the pre-dominance of the Alexanderian text in the first three Centuries. You cannot do it and you know it. am not parroting anything but stating manuscriptural evidence and facts. what are you stating?
 

robycop3

Member
Huldrych said:
Well, there's some problems with that argument, too. The MSS upon which Alexandrian Bibles are based are usually older than extant Byzantine MSS. The thing that came first can't be corrupted by something that came after.

I'm not questioning your sincerity, Pete. I'm showing you a simple flaw in your argument. The way to remedy this dilemma is to find something that proves the traditional text readings are as old, if not older than the extant Alexandrian MSS. Patristic quotations would be your next recourse. If you find patristic quotations for those verses that support the traditional text over the alexandrian, that would give you some better support on that line.



Yeah, the same way drinking Drano takes care of heartburn. Sorry, that was a little harsh. I don't trust his scholarship. He makes way too many blunders than befits someone who is supposed to be able to do Doctorate-level work.

jth


JTH, didja ever see Rucky's "prophecy" that the Antichrist will be a ten-foot tall alien with black lips who will arrive in a mile-wide spaceship he'll land on the mount of olives? Says volumes about his "scholarship" eh? He musta been reading Von Daniken's works(Chariots of The Gods) and combining them with Scripture.

And people trust him as a BIBLE scholar?
 

robycop3

Member
Brandplucked:The end result is that neither you, nor James White, nor Daniel Wallace have any Bible or any text that any of you believe is the inerrant, preserved, infallible words of God, and each of you differs from the other as to what "the originals" may have looked like.

And neither do YOU. There's a cup holding 8 oz. liquid that has 4 oz. liquid in it when you see it. Without knowing who filled it for what purpose, w/o knowing if it was once completely full or 4 oz was all someone put in it, you have no idea(and neither would I, under the same conditions) whether it was then half full or half empty.

Get over yourselves and begin the believe what The Book says about itself. God said He would preserve His wordS in a Book here on this earth. He either did this or He lied. If He did not lie to us, then where is this Book today?

Then where was it in English before 1611? Both Scripture and English were in existence before the KJV was made. And we all know no two English BVs are alike. There are only two possibilities...God didn't keep His promise, or He has preserved His word as HE chose, regardless of mens' theories.

Once again...THE KJVO MYTH IS PURE GUESSWORK!
 

Huldrych

New member
Tell me you're joking

Tell me you're joking

robycop3 said:
JTH, didja ever see Rucky's "prophecy" that the Antichrist will be a ten-foot tall alien with black lips who will arrive in a mile-wide spaceship he'll land on the mount of olives?

Is that for real, or was Rucky just engaging in a little exasperated exaggeration? I don't believe that even he would stoop that low.

jth
 

Huldrych

New member
Huldrych said:
Is that for real, or was Rucky just engaging in a little exasperated exaggeration? I don't believe that even he would stoop that low.

I was wrong. Bob Ross mentions the same thing at http://www.kjvonly.org/bob/ross_ruck_gov.htm

The fact is, the "mark" is in reality a "kiss" applied by a 10-foot tall man who has "two huge Black Lips," and he will arrive at St. Peter's in Rome in a UFO, according to Possel's Ruckman's definitive book, THE MARK OF THE BEAST.

Someone else had the same question I had, to which Ross responded over at http://www.kjvonly.org/bob/ross_black_lip_pr.htm

I keep getting "questions" about this story, so here it is again:

It's not a gag at all -- Ruckman actually teaches that the Antichrist will fly in on a flying saucer, land at St. Peter's in Rome, de-saucer, and start kissing people with "two huge black lips," giving them the "Mark of the Beast." He claims he discovered this "revelation" in the "King James Bible" after reading it thru "forty times." Here is the story:

Peter Ruckman ("Possel") has two books which he says are "definitive" writings; one of them is called THE MARK OF THE BEAST. It is in this book in which he imparts his
fabulous revelation about the Antichrist.

In "The Mark," Ruckman tells all about the Antichrist, or the "Man of Sin" and "Beast," in chapters 4 and 5.

Maybe Peter A V can confirm this for us. I still find it incredible.

jth
 

Peter A V

New member
Thank you for your research

Thank you for your research

HuldrychAt any rate said:
only 40%[/b]. If it were based on the traditional text, we would see a better agreement rate than this.
Does that sound like "a text like the KJV?"
jth

Thanks for the work Huldrych,I will look into it.I do know this much,that the book,"Which Bible is God's Words?" is a transcript from interviews on SWRC Radio Ministries.
So,the majority of references will be in the text itself,when she gives it,plus she will give you any info you would like if you just contact her.She may be able to clear up the issue for you.

Is this the text that you are talking about?

pg53
3.Luther used the German Tepl Bible,which represented a translation of the Waldensian Bible into German,to make Luther's German Bible.
G.A.Riplinger.
Other than that,this is the first time that I am in any way in knowledge of this Text,so I cannot help you here.

Just found it,page 74.Your quote is correct of her.
 
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robycop3

Member
Peter A V said:
To see Ruckman in action,just tune in to
http://www.godslearningchannel.com/
Every Sunday.I'm on the West coast,and get him at 3 pm.Quite unique.

To hear Gail Riplinger and others,just go to
SWRC Ministries:Broadcasts-June 2004
http://www.swrc.com/broadcasts/2004/june.htm


Might as well pick up some Jim Bakker reruns while you're at it, especially if ya believe the stuff from SWRC. It's just a rehash of the same ole KJVO garbage, packaged into a different dumpster. Rucky and The Ripper are both charlatans.
 

robycop3

Member
Brandplucked: you are merely parroting the Alexandrian line, and this line of yours keeps changing. You seem to skip over much of the information I and Peter lay out. Peter has shown that even the early papyrus evidence (all of which comes from one small area in Egypt, and is considered a merely local text from a hotbed of Arian heretics)...that the papyrus evidence is a very mixed bag, with the Textus Receptus readiings often predominating over the Alexandrian.

The Book of Daniel came from a hotbed, yea, the CENTER of the worship of Baal(Bel), Nebo(Chemosh), and the planet Mars(Nergal). It was mostly the work of one righteous man(Daniel) whose faith helped convert even a mighty idol-worshipping king(Nebuchadnezzar). It doesn't matter if they came from Antarctica...The question is about their AGE AND ACCURACY.

Are you saying the Alex mss cannot be accurate simply because they came from Egypt?

You totally skipped over what even Dr. Hort himself said. This is from Hort's own words! I will repeat it for you. And then you totally missed what the NKJV "scholars" said about the very same evidence. All we have is your OPINION, and it doesn't line up with the known facts.

Now, once again John, and Pay Attention this time.

Even Dr. Hort of the famed Westcott Hort text said: "The fundamental Text of late extant Greek MSS generally is beyond all question identical with the dominant Antiochian or
Graeco-Syrian Text of the second half of the 4th century." (Hort, The Factor of Geneology, pg 92---as cited by Burgon, Revision Revised, pg 257).

Dean Burgon immediately comments: "We request, in passing, that the foregoing statement may be carefully noted. The Traditional Greek Text of the New Testament, ---the TEXTUS
RECEPTUS, in short--is, according to Dr. Hort, `BEYOND ALL QUESTION the TEXT OF THE SECOND HALF OF THE FOURTH CENTURY.'


BUT...............

How come you quote Burgon only where his statements seem to support the KJVO myth, which didn't exist in his lifetime, while skipping over his saying that the TR needed a thorough revision?

John, the TR is identical with the dominant text that existed when your two "oldest and best" manuscripts were written! In other words, at the very time Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were penned, the Byzantine texts were already the predominate texts of the Christian church!
And this comes from Dr. Hort himself.


Apparently he found enough to correct himself.

Then we have the words from the NKJV editors which directly contradict both James White and Dan Wallace.

Here they are again. Pay attention this time.





"Scholars" who have all gone to the same seminaries and learned the same material, will often directly contradict the "findings" of other scholars. In the following quotes found in the 1982 edition of the NKJV. Keep in mind that these people are not KJB onlies.

In the preface of the NKJV, which was translated by some of the
same men who translated the NIV, it says on page vii "The
manuscript preferences cited in many contemporary translations
are due to recent reliance on a relatively few manuscripts
discovered in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Dependence on these manuscripts, especially two, the Sinaitic
and Vatican manuscripts, is due to the greater age of these
documents.

However, in spite of their age, some scholars have reason to
doubt their faithfulness to the autographs, since they often
disagree with one another and show other signs of unreliability.

On the other hand, the great majority of existing manuscripts are
in substantial agreement. Even though many are late, and none
are earlier than the fifth century, MOST OF THEIR READINGS
ARE VERIFIED BY ANCIENT PAPYRI, ANCIENT VERSIONS, AND
QUOTATIONS OF THE EARLY CHURCH FATHERS. This large
body of manuscripts is the source of the Greek text underlying
the King James Bible. It is the Greek text used by
Greek-speaking churches for many centuries, presently known
as the Textus Receptus, or Received Text, of the New
Testament.


But you readily admit that very often, two "scholars" cannot agree on anything. Are those mens' opinions any more qualified than are those of White, Wallace, or Metzger?

And much depends upon WHAT KIND of info a scholar has to offer. A professor emeritus with more doctorate degrees than hairs on his head, wearing a Rolex watch cannot tell me the time of day any more accurately than can a street urchin wearing a Timex watch.

John, the simple reason your Sinaiticus and Vaticanus mss. survived was because they were recognized as corrupt and inferiour, and so were not used. Sinaiticus itself shows that anywhere from 8 to 10 different scribes tried to correct and revise it, and apparently gave up on it.

This is pure fiction, Will. There are many copies of the AV 1611 which are quite pristine, with some of them having been in use for many years as lectern Bibles in churches. Does that mean the KJV wasn't used, or does it mean that there were many copies made, some of which were preserved as family heirlooms, etc? The same logic must be applied to those old mss, or it'll be just another KJVO DOUBLE STANDARD.

The true texts were USED, copied, passed around, and handled, and that is why they ceased to exist. This is just common sense. If you use something it wears out. If you don't use a manuscript, it will stick around.

COMMON SENSE is that the texts were COPIED, both older and later ones, same as were the common Bible versions. Otherwise, we wouldn't have ANY of them, right? Nor would we have any pristine old AV 1611s nor Geneva Bibles, right?

Your Sinaiticus and Vaticanus disagree with each other well over 4000 times in the New Testament alone, and many of these differences are entire verses found in one and not in the other. If these are your "oldest and best" then we are in a world of hurt.

The Four Gospels disagree among themselves umpteen times within the Textus Receptus alone. Common sense says there should be LESS disagreement WITHIN one text than there should be BETWEEN texts.

The end result is that neither you, nor James White, nor Daniel Wallace have any Bible or any text that any of you believe is the inerrant, preserved, infallible words of God, and each of you differs from the other as to what "the originals" may have looked like.

While YOU simply employ GUESSWORK.

Get over yourselves and begin the believe what The Book says about itself. God said He would preserve His wordS in a Book here on this earth. He either did this or He lied. If He did not lie to us, then where is this Book today?

Those same Scriptures were in existence before English existed. Where were His wordS then? And...Did God speak English to His chosen writers? If He had, would/could they have written a single word?

You're relying upon ONE GROUP OF MEN instead of upon all that GOD has made available, while ignoring their own words: "Variety of Translations Is profitable for the Finding Out of the Sense of the Scriptures" and,
"For is the kingdom of God to become words or syllables? Why should we be in bondage to them if we may be free, use one precisely when we may use another no less fit, as commodiously?"

But in your selective lauding of them, you choose only those parts which agree with your KJVO myth while ignoring that which shows the myth wrong. You conveniently skip over their own words with which they say their translation is NOT the be-all, end-all English version, their belief that the LXX was first written in the 200s BC, that Psalm 12:7 is about PEOPLE, and many other things they wrote that made the KJVO myth stillborn when it was "hatched" in 1930.

You're still guessing, Will!
 
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