Much was made of the fact that "takes away" (the sin of the world) is a present tense verb. Because of this it is assumed that it applies NOT to Jesus bearing the sins of mankind on the cross in the future but to His bearing people's sorrows and griefs in the (then) present.
Let us look at the Baptist’s words:
“The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away (present tense) the sin of the world” (1 Jn.1:29).
Since the words “taketh away” are in the present tense then it is obvious that John was not referring to the Cross. If he was referring to the cross he would have used the “future” tense. But that means nothing to you! Instead, by your arguments I can only conclude that you think that the Baptist was in error for using the present tense.
Despite the fact that you cannot quote even one verse where the TWELVE say anything about the “purpose” of the Cross as revealed in the gospel of grace before Paul was converted all you can do is ask us to imagine that they did. And while you are trying to make an argument from silence you refuse to answer these simple questions:
Do you believe that it was "good news" or gospel when it was revealed to the children of Israel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?
And do you believe that "everyone" who believes that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, is born of God and saved?
Please answer those two simple question first when you respond to this post of mine.
I have searched and found a lot about the purpose of the cross in the OT so have you too probably though it would not be consistent with MAD to say so.
Please tell me where in the OT that you have found the truth about the imputed righteousness of God which comes to all believers and the fact that believers are are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus:
"But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus" (Ro.3:21-24).
The OT will be searched in vain for that truth because Paul makes it plain that the truth of the righteousness of God apart the law was not revealed until his day:
"But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus" (Ro.3:21-24).
That is why Paul calls the gospel which he preached among the Gentiles the "UNSEARCHABLE riches of Christ":
"Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; And to make all men see what is the dispensation of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ" (Eph.3:7-9).
The OT will be searched in vain for the truths concerning the gospel of grace because that truth has been hidden in God from the beginning of the world. But you quote several verses from the OT which speak nothing about believers being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
F. Finally the substitutionary nature of His death is summarized
...and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
Are you saying that by that verse others would understand that believers are being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus? We can see that the purpose of the Cross revealed in the “gospel of grace” was not to be found in the OT:
"But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory: Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory" (1 Cor.2:7-8).
The "purpose" of the Cross found in the gospel of grace was kept secret in the OT and that was for a reason. If the princes of the world knew that "purpose" of the Cross as revealed in the "gospel of grace" then they would not have crucified the Lord Jesus.
If that is not what these verses are saying then they must have another meaning. Please give me your interpretation of their meaning.
The Ethiopian, seeing the benefit this work had for him personally, became a Christian and requested baptism which meant that Philip had also explained the repentance and Baptism by which he could receive the forgiveness of sin. Not only did Philip know the purpose of the cross as revealed in Isaiah he was even able to use it in the work of evangelism – and this was a long time before Paul.
Even though Philip preached from Isaiah 53 there is no reason to believe that either knew the fact that believers are "justified freely by His grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.” In fact, after being told by Philip that one must believe before being baptized with water the eunuch said exactly what he believed:
"And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God" (Acts 8:36-37).
If it was necessary for the eunuch to know that believers are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus then why would he baptize the eunuch? The answer is obvious. The eunuch believe the gospel message that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And believing that alone was sufficient for him to be saved (Jn.20:30-31; 1 Jn.5:1-5).
Which leaders in the Acts 2 community "understood that Paul was the first to preach the 'gospel of grace?"
In a Bible tract entitled
Paul's Gospel Acts 2 dispensationalist William R. Newell wrote:
"The twelve Apostles (Matthias by Divine appointment taking the place of Judas) were to be the 'witnesses' (Acts 1:22) of Christ's resurrection--that is, of the fact of it. They were not to unfold fully the doctrine of it, as Paul was...But unto none of these twelve Apostles did God reveal 'the great body of doctrine for this age'...The great doctrines that Paul reveals may be outlined as follows...The fact and the Scripturalness of righteousness on the free gift principle--that is, of Divine righteousness, separate from all man's doings, conferred upon man as a free gift from God" (Newell, Paul's Gospel).
After reading this Bible tract Lewis Sperry Chafer, the founding President of Dallas Theological Seminary, said:
"This is a great tract, a clear treatise on the truth of God for this age. The author was one of America's greatest Bible expositors. It glorifies the Savior as the author desired it to do. It should be distributed by hundreds of thousands" (Editor, Journal of the Grace Evangelical Society, Autumn 1994, Volume 7:12).
Today Dallas Theological Seminary is considered the leading Acts 2 dispensational seminary in the world, and the founding President of that seminary recognized the fact that the "gospel of grace" was not preached by anyone before Paul. Therefore that gospel was not preached on the Day of Pentecost and the present dispensation did not begin on that day.
The second President of Dallas Theological Seminary, John F. Walvoord, wrote that
"The gospel of Grace was given to Paul as a 'new' revelation" (Walvoord, "The Preincarnate Son of God",
Bibliotheca Sacra, Oct.-Dec. 1947, Vol. 104, # 416, p.422).
Now that I have answered your points please make it your top priority to answer these two simple questions:
Do you believe that it was "good news" or gospel when it was revealed to the children of Israel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?
And do you believe that "everyone" who believes that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, is born of God and saved?