Cross Reference
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Is fallen man, from his beginning, "totally depraved" as the "unlearned" teach or is it as Rom.1:28 teaches us that it is God who turns one over to reprobation and without remedy per Pr.29:1 to show us there is no predestination in it because God would have all men to be saved. cf 2Chr. 36:16.
Genesis 4:26 says, no. Romans 12:3 also says, no, regardless of Paul addressing Christians. Jer. 6:30 speaks of His rejection of His people as reprobate silver.
It is important to understand, if we say we believe the Bible as written, that some verses are stand alone verses even within the context of other truth given, they support. I.e., Faith is given to all men in measure. However, some having more faith than others can be for various reasons with one being the Pentecostal gift of faith Paul infers in Gal 2:20 (KJV) he declares he lives by, faith that reveals itself to be the very Life of Christ Jesus, intimate with God.
In all of this we cans see that fallen man was not totally depraved/reprobate from his birth.
Genesis 4:26 says, no. Romans 12:3 also says, no, regardless of Paul addressing Christians. Jer. 6:30 speaks of His rejection of His people as reprobate silver.
It is important to understand, if we say we believe the Bible as written, that some verses are stand alone verses even within the context of other truth given, they support. I.e., Faith is given to all men in measure. However, some having more faith than others can be for various reasons with one being the Pentecostal gift of faith Paul infers in Gal 2:20 (KJV) he declares he lives by, faith that reveals itself to be the very Life of Christ Jesus, intimate with God.
In all of this we cans see that fallen man was not totally depraved/reprobate from his birth.