musterion
Well-known member
In the 1970s, a doctor whose practice treated many homosexuals started to use a term to define a list of symptoms the homosexuals kept bringing to him for treatment. His term was GBS, or Gay Bowel Syndrome. Wikipedia notes it was found to be spread through
With the onset of the AIDS epidemic, out of fear of death many homosexuals began using condoms to sodomize each other, so the symptoms of GBS were not seen as often as before. Yet many articles claimed the term was wrong (politically incorrect) simply because it drew unwanted attention to the many ills of sodomy, even though no one could deny that homosexuals exhibited GBS by far more than anyone else.
The result was, as far as medical literature and the media were concerned, one would think GBS had completely vanished. But GBS only ceased being discussed under that name. It didn't disappear. Rates had decreased but it was still out there. It just ceased to be talked about as (supposedly) obsolete.
This manufactured silence is mentioned in a 2014 article, summarized thus:
Increase rates of infection are due to homosexuals again becoming more confident in unprotected sodomy due to the availability of drugs for AIDS, so infection rates naturally increase.
Question: But why does a cluster of specific disease symptoms - which for over 40 years have been identified as directly attributable to sodomy - continue to plague homosexuals, if homosexuality is every bit as normal and natural as heterosexuality?
Spoiler
With the onset of the AIDS epidemic, out of fear of death many homosexuals began using condoms to sodomize each other, so the symptoms of GBS were not seen as often as before. Yet many articles claimed the term was wrong (politically incorrect) simply because it drew unwanted attention to the many ills of sodomy, even though no one could deny that homosexuals exhibited GBS by far more than anyone else.
The result was, as far as medical literature and the media were concerned, one would think GBS had completely vanished. But GBS only ceased being discussed under that name. It didn't disappear. Rates had decreased but it was still out there. It just ceased to be talked about as (supposedly) obsolete.
This manufactured silence is mentioned in a 2014 article, summarized thus:
Increase rates of infection are due to homosexuals again becoming more confident in unprotected sodomy due to the availability of drugs for AIDS, so infection rates naturally increase.
Question: But why does a cluster of specific disease symptoms - which for over 40 years have been identified as directly attributable to sodomy - continue to plague homosexuals, if homosexuality is every bit as normal and natural as heterosexuality?
