You assume because of your narrative that one does not mean one, but more than one.
If God meant more than one, why didn't God state some other numeral other than one?
Why don't you look at the uses of echad that occur before Genesis 2:24?
Gen 1:5
And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.
The first day was indeed special, as indicated by the use of "echad" rather than "rishom."
It reads "day one," rather than "the first day"
All of the other days in the creation week use ordinals, but the first day uses echad instead of the ordinal rishom.
Gen 1:9
And God said, Let the waters under the heaven be gathered together unto one place, and let the dry land appear: and it was so.
A grouping together of the waters into a united place (multiple of them, rather).
Gen 2:11
The name of the first is Pison: that is it which compasseth the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold;
Same as with 1:5.
Gen 2:21
And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;
I'm not entirely sure on this one, but at best for your case, either way you look at it, it doesn't harm my (and RD's) position.
Clearly, the uses are referring to one in number or first, not a multiplicity of objects.
Yes, Echad also means and is used as "first."
There's no dispute there.
But you're stubbornly ignoring the fact that it ALSO means a unity of things.
IF you choose to insist that one means properly united, please explain the next verse where echad is used.
That's what it means per Strong's Concordance.
You're literally arguing against the definition of the word, at this point.
Gen 3:22
And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one H259 of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
GOD is the origin of the royal "we" because He is "ECHAD ELOHIM." ONE God. A united plurality.
Or would you rather make the argument that He is the "first" God instead?
That'll lead you to heresy.
Are you sure that the Lord God and the sinful Adam are properly united as one? One as in "one flesh" or one God?
God isn't saying Adam IS one with Him.
Read the verse again:
Then the Lord God said, “Behold, the man has become
like one of Us, to know good and evil. And now, lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever”—
Then the Lord God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil. And now, lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever”—
www.biblegateway.com
God is comparing Adam post eating the fruit to Himself, not saying he has become God or part of God.
"LIKE" one of Us.
Please pay attention to the scripture you yourself quote.
If we continue down the list of places where echad is used, we find that it is referring to one object, not a unity of objects.
Gen 4:19
And Lamech took unto him two wives: the name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah.
"First"
Which is one of the definitions of Echad, and thus part of what RD said.
Gen 8:5
And the waters decreased continually until the tenth month: in the tenth month, on the first day of the month, were the tops of the mountains seen.
Again, "first," which fits what RD said.
Gen 8:13
And it came to pass in the six hundredth and first year, in the first month, the first day of the month, the waters were dried up from off the earth: and Noah removed the covering of the ark, and looked, and, behold, the face of the ground was dry.
Same again.
Gen 10:25
And unto Eber were born two sons: the name of one was Peleg; for in his days was the earth divided; and his brother's name was Joktan.
Same as the first example in this series.
Gen 11:1
And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech.
This "one" actually does mean united.
All the people are speaking a united language. Their language is unified.
Gen 11:6
And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
They are a united people, with a united language.
Thanks for giving those examples. They only strengthen our position.
Do you think it is wise to take such unfounded liberty with scripture?
Here's a few more examples that further prove our one position:
Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become
one flesh.
Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
www.biblegateway.com
And one more:
So Moses came and told the people all the words of the Lord and all the judgments. And all the people answered with
one voice and said, “All the words which the Lord has said we will do.”
So Moses came and told the people all the words of the Lord and all the judgments. And all the people answered with one voice and said, “All the words which the Lord has said we will do.”
www.biblegateway.com
And one more again:
The trespass offering is like the sin offering; there is
one law for them both: the priest who makes atonement with it shall have it.
The trespass offering is like the sin offering; there is one law for them both: the priest who makes atonement with it shall have it.
www.biblegateway.com
These three examples all show "unity" rather than "first."