ECT DOE YOU BELIEVE THIS ??

DAN P

Well-known member
Hi to all and we had one poster that 2P/2P was confusing to me !!

I was feeding my cat Saturday and was thinking about the dilemma and my answer to him is this !!

It will a 3P / 3P !!

#1 , The first one is THE LAW OF MOSES , in Acts 21:20 !!

#2 , The second one is The Assembly that Paul PERSECUTED in Acts 8:1-3 !!

#3 The third one is Acts 20:24 !!

And will forget Acts 9:15 these 3 !!

These 3 are all happening at the same time !!


But wait there are 3 more !!

#1 , In the Millennium there are 3 more , the FIRST ONE is Israel as they will be Kings and Priests , Rev 1:6 and Ex 19:6 !!

#2 , The second group is The Sheep is Matt 25:33 and the SHEEP are those that helped Israel during the Great Tribulation !!

#3 The Third group are the GOATS that never helped Israel Matt 25:41-46 and are Damned !!


But what happens in Eph 1:10 , as Christ gathers all in the Dispensation of the FULNESS of Time to head up THE ALL THINGS " in Christ " and the KJV leaves out the Greek article THE / T A out of the Greek text !!

The word THREE to many means completeness !!

dan p
 

Danoh

New member
You nit picker, you.

:chuckle:

The KJV leaves out the article "the" in that passage for the same reason that an ENGLISH translation of the Spanish "EL hombre y LA mujer" would be translated absent of said articles as "man and woman."

You're simply wooden in your approach, and obviously just as married to it.

Is all, lol

Rom. 5:6-8.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
You nit picker, you.

:chuckle:

The KJV leaves out the article "the" in that passage for the same reason that an ENGLISH translation of the Spanish "EL hombre y LA mujer" would be translated absent of said articles as "man and woman."

You're simply wooden in your approach, and obviously just as married to it.

Is all, lol

Rom. 5:6-8.



Hi and ALL of the Greeks word should be translated OT maybe Jesus was wrong that in Matt 5:18 and that the BOOK in written by the Holy Spirit !!

dan p
 

Danoh

New member
Hi and ALL of the Greeks word should be translated OT maybe Jesus was wrong that in Matt 5:18 and that the BOOK in written by the Holy Spirit !!

dan p

:chuckle: - perhaps we should also just translate the thing in its original word order.

"For the administration of the fulness the of times to head up the all things in the Christ the things in the heavens and the things upon the earth."

But anyway, actually the "one jot" and "one title" reference is a figure of speech.

Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

What He'd meant by that was that all that had been prophesied by the law and the prophets would indeed come to pass - all of it.

Why did He even bring that up - now there is a question the more astute might ask.

Result of such a question, in light of the whole of His ministry and how it had been received by Israel?

The jot and the tittle are a figure of speech representing a measure of exactitude - how that not one jot, nor even one tittle of all that had been prophesied would fail to come to pass.

Actually, though, as with Paul after Him, what He was actually doing by those words, was making a statement about His ministry - how that no aspect of what He was asserting was in any way, shape, or form against any thing that had been prophesied.

Put down your Greek and get in The Word.

Rom. 5:6-8.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
:chuckle: - perhaps we should also just translate the thing in its original word order.

"For the administration of the fulness the of times to head up the all things in the Christ the things in the heavens and the things upon the earth."

But anyway, actually the "one jot" and "one title" reference is a figure of speech.

Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

What He'd meant by that was that all that had been prophesied by the law and the prophets would indeed come to pass - all of it.

Why did He even bring that up - now there is a question the more astute might ask.

Result of such a question, in light of the whole of His ministry and how it had been received by Israel?

The jot and the tittle are a figure of speech representing a measure of exactitude - how that not one jot, nor even one tittle of all that had been prophesied would fail to come to pass.

Actually, though, as with Paul after Him, what He was actually doing by those words, was making a statement about His ministry - how that no aspect of what He was asserting was in any way, shape, or form against any thing that had been prophesied.

Put down your Greek and get in The Word.

Rom. 5:6-8.



Hi and I am comfortable and sleep good at night !!

Learn DISPENSATIONALISM and come OUT of the DARK !! LOL

Eph 3:9

dan p
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Sure - this one - 2 Tim. 2:15.

:chuckle:

Rom. 5:6-8.



Hi Danoh , only 3 verbs here , the Greek word STUDY / SPOUDAZ0 and is in the Greek Aorist tnse and in the ACTIVE VOICE and in the IMPERATIVE MOOD !

The word study is a COMMAND to study !~

The second verb is TO SHOW / PARISTEMI and should start studying !!

The 3 verbs is RIGHTLY DIVIDING / ORTHOTOMEO and means to cut straight and the present tense is speaking to the B O C !!

dan p
 
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