Do we have the inspired Word of God today?

[wholearmor]

There is one God, the Father, the Almighty, maker of heaven and earth, of all that is, seen and unseen.

There is one Lord, Jesus Christ, the only Son of God, eternally begotten of the Father, true God from true God, begotten, not made, of one Being with the Father.

Through Him all things were made. For us and for our salvation He came down from heaven: by the Holy Spirit He became incarnate from the Virgin Mary, and was made man.

For our sake He was crucified under Pontius Pilate; He suffered death and was buried.

On the third day He rose again in accordance with the Scriptures; He ascended into heaven and is seated at the right hand of the Father.
He will come again in glory.

With His saints He will judge the living and the dead. And His kingdom will have no end.

There is one Holy Spirit, the Lord, the giver of life, who proceeds from the Father. With the Father and the Son He is worshipped.

He has spoken through the prophets and through the Scriptures.
God established the Body of Christ into which the Holy Spirit baptizes every new believer.

God offers salvation by grace through faith alone in the resurrected Christ.
The Bible records the true history of man including that God created the heavens and the earth and everything in them in six literal days; only eight people survived a global flood; through great wonders God delivered Israel from Egypt; the prophets, Christ, and the apostles performed many miraculous deeds.

The Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments, in their original state, are the inspired Word of God. God legislated morality out of love for His creation.
Men who reject God will suffer eternal damnation.

Christ commands His followers to rebuke and to judge with righteous judgment and to forgive those who repent. One day God will resurrect the dead, punish the unbelievers, and reward those whom He has justified with the life of the world to come.
Amen.

"
"The Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments, in their original state, are the inspired Word of God."

So, do we have the inspired Word of God today?

 

[JudgeRightly]

"The Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments, in their original state, are the inspired Word of God."

So, do we have the inspired Word of God today?

We have copies of copies of copies. What we have today are not the original manuscripts. The original manuscripts are the inspired word of God.

The Bibles we have today are God's word, but they themselves are not the inspired words of God.

 

[wholearmor]

We have copies of copies of copies. What we have today are not the original manuscripts. The original manuscripts are the inspired word of God.

The Bibles we have today are God's word, but they themselves are not the inspired words of God.

So, we can't believe a word it says?

 

[JudgeRightly]

So, we can't believe a word it says?

Of course we can believe what it says. Why? Because the Bible contains truth claims that stand on evidence. The Bible is falsifiable.

AND:

It was written in such a way that, just because it's copied (which has the possibility of introducing errors), or because the language is updated (compare Dead Sea Scrolls to modern Hebrew Bibles), or because it's translated into another language (which never results in a 1:1 translation, simply because there are differences between any two given languages, meaning that some less than precise translations are required), the message being conveyed does not change, and the context of what is being said reinforces the meaning, like adding rebar to concrete to make it stronger.

 

[wholearmor]

Of course we can believe what it says. Why? Because the Bible contains truth claims that stand on evidence. The Bible is falsifiable.

AND:

It was written in such a way that, just because it's copied (which has the possibility of introducing errors), or because the language is updated (compare Dead Sea Scrolls to modern Hebrew Bibles), or because it's translated into another language (which never results in a 1:1 translation, simply because there are differences between any two given languages, meaning that some less than precise translations are required), the message being conveyed does not change, and the context of what is being said reinforces the meaning, like adding rebar to concrete to make it stronger.

"...the message being conveyed does not change,"
The message in the very first verse of the Bible changes between versions. The King James Bible is the ONLY one to translate it:
(Genesis 1:1 KJB)
(1) In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

All the others translate it:
(Genesis 1:1 NKJV)
(1) In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

So, what actually happened in the beginning? Did God create the heaven and the earth, or did he create the heavens and the earth?

And here's something else from the NKJV:
(1 Corinthians 1:18 NKJV)
(18) For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.

(Ephesians 2:8 NKJV)
(8) For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,

Did you catch it?

 

[JudgeRightly]

"...the message being conveyed does not change,"
The message in the very first verse of the Bible changes between versions. The King James Bible is the ONLY one to translate it:
(Genesis 1:1 KJB)
(1) In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

All the others translate it:
(Genesis 1:1 NKJV)
(1) In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

So, what actually happened in the beginning? Did God create the heaven and the earth, or did he create the heavens and the earth?

The Hebrew word used for "the heavens" in verse 1 ( הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם "haš·šā·ma·yim") is plural.

In other words, the KJV translators did not correctly translate "הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם".

But what does this have to do with what I said, which is that the message being conveyed does not change?

And here's something else from the NKJV:
(1 Corinthians 1:18 NKJV)
(18) For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.

(Ephesians 2:8 NKJV)
(8) For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,

Did you catch it?

Make your point, please. I can't read your mind.

 

[wholearmor]

The Hebrew word used for "the heavens" in verse 1 ( הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם "haš·šā·ma·yim") is plural.

In other words, the KJV translators did not correctly translate "הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם".

But what does this have to do with what I said, which is that the message being conveyed does not change?



Make your point, please. I can't read your mind.

How do you know that's what the Hebrew word is? Besides, we speak English. The message changed because heaven and heavens are not the same.

I wrote out the two verses. What does that have to do with reading my mind? They're right there for you to compare. Do you catch what one says differently than the other, or no?

 

[JudgeRightly]

How do you know that's what the Hebrew word is?

Because I have a Hebrew interlinear... Duh.

Besides, we speak English. The message changed because heaven and heavens are not the same.

If you want to say that the meaning changed, then you can only say that the KJV translators mistranslated the word, while the other translations translated it correctly.

I wrote out the two verses. What does that have to do with reading my mind? They're right there for you to compare. Do you catch what one says differently than the other, or no?

If you think there is some argument that needs to be made, then make the argument already. Because all I see is you quoting two different verses and hinting at some sort of discrepancy. They're two different verses that are saying two different things. Why wouldn't one say something differently than the other?

 

[wholearmor]

Because I have a Hebrew interlinear... Duh.



If you want to say that the meaning changed, then you can only say that the KJV translators mistranslated the word, while the other translations translated it correctly.



If you think there is some argument that needs to be made, then make the argument already. Because all I see is you quoting two different verses and hinting at some sort of discrepancy. They're two different verses that are saying two different things. Why wouldn't one say something differently than the other?

How do you know the Hebrew interlinear is correct?

No, I can say the rest of them translated it incorrectly.

Are you just quickly skipping through the verses or what? Is that how you study your Bible, too? There is a difference between them that is glaring. I'll give you one more chance to figure it out, then I'll tell you if you need me to.

 

[JudgeRightly]

How do you know the Hebrew interlinear is correct?

Because of the context.

No, I can say the rest of them translated it incorrectly.

Because you say so?

Are you just quickly skipping through the verses or what? Is that how you study your Bible, too? There is a difference between them that is glaring. I'll give you one more chance to figure it out, then I'll tell you if you need me to.

Either make the argument or don't. I'm not going to do it for you.