It depends on if Jesus made those finger 'quote' marks when He said it. He may be just paraphrasing. Or refering to John 7:38, which He knew would be written someday.Hi, I'm new here.
John 7:38 "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water." (NKJV)
Jesus quotes scripture here, but his quotation appears nowhere in the Old Testament. What gives?
It depends on if Jesus made those finger 'quote' marks when He said it.
Hi, I'm new here.
John 7:38 "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water." (NKJV)
Jesus quotes scripture here, but his quotation appears nowhere in the Old Testament. What gives?
John 7:37 On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, “If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink.
The last day is symbolic of the end of the last week of God’s 70 week plan for Israel, where God refines Israel through great tribulation.
Christ came to Israel to offer them the kingdom and if she had accepted God would have moved right into the 70th week and living waters would have flowed from the heart of Israel as shown in Zechariah:
Zechariah 14:5-21
Then you shall flee through My mountain valley,
For the mountain valley shall reach to Azal.
Yes, you shall flee
As you fled from the earthquake
In the days of Uzziah king of Judah.
Thus the LORD my God will come,
And all the saints with You.[a]
6 It shall come to pass in that day
That there will be no light;
The lights will diminish.
7 It shall be one day
Which is known to the LORD—
Neither day nor night.
But at evening time it shall happen
That it will be light.
8 And in that day it shall be
That living waters shall flow from Jerusalem,
Half of them toward the eastern sea
And half of them toward the western sea;
In both summer and winter it shall occur.
9 And the LORD shall be King over all the earth.
In that day it shall be—
The living waters flowing from Jerusalem are the believing Israelites who have survived and overcome the tribulation period by believing in Jesus Christ. :thumb:
Jesus didn't say He was quoting a specific verse verbatim. He simply was expounding on the general teaching or gist of several different verses here. For example if I said, "There appears to be an inaccurate quotation by Jesus, as LostBoy said in his opening post, in John 7:38," would my statement be in error just because I didn't quote you verbatim? I wasn't claiming I was quoting you word for word, so what would be the problem? Jesus also did not claim to be quoting any specific verse word for word.Jesus was very specific when he stated "as the Scripture has said". There are several instances of references in the bible to living waters, but nothing that really comes close to this direct quotation.
There are no quotation marks in Hebrew. It is up to the english translators to decide if quotation marks are warranted in any specific verse. The Bible translators worth their salt didn't put quotes in this verse. But, not surprisingly, the heretical translators of the NAS did. Those heretics even left the following verses completely out of their so-called "translation."Depending on the version you read, it IS a direct quotation. I believe the NAS puts quotes around "out of his heart...". Were the translators of the bible in error to put these quotes in?
Here's an example of the "You have heard it said" verses: "Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy. But I say unto you, Love your enemies..." (Matthew 5:43,44). That saying is nowhere in the Bible. In other words, it was just a saying like, "you can catch more flies with honey than vinegar." Do you really think everyone says that saying exactly the same way every time? Of course not. Sometimes people will say...Also, I am pretty sure that all other times Jesus quoted the bible, for example when debating the Pharisees, he quoted exactly. i.e. "You have heard it said that XXX, but I say YYY. " Why should this be different?
My example didn't quote you verbatim, it quoted me verbatim. Here it is again:And since you DID put quotes around your example statement in your reply, you would indeed be in error. When quotes are used, it implies verbatim.
See what I mean?For example if I said, "There appears to be an inaccurate quotation by Jesus, as LostBoy said in his opening post, in John 7:38," would my statement be in error just because I didn't quote you verbatim?
This is the first time I have ever read an atheist say something this open-minded on any forum. You just might be a breath of fresh air around here.I am willing to concede that some of your beliefs are logical and well-reasoned, and make sense...
I don't doubt that you use reason and logic, it's just that 2 reasonable and logical people often come to different conclusions with one or maybe even both of them being wrong....even if you are unwilling to concede that my loss of faith is based on reason and logic.
One of those answers stands out above the rest. Do I have to point out its number 1?To sum it up, we have so far...
1) Jesus wasn't using air quotes (whatever) - (Guy Smiley)
2) You're right, it isn't there, so you have to interpret it (Keypurr)
3) It's only symbolic (Lion)
4) Jesus didn't really quote verbatim, even though he states "as scripture has said" (Jefferson)
5) Please read a "Real Bible", not one written by damn heretics (Jefferson)
Does anyone else have any different ideas? Thanks for all the contributions so far. Like I said, I'm new here and I appreciated the involvement I am seeing here. So far everyone but Jefferson has been exceedingly polite, so thanks.
Hi, I'm new here.
John 7:38 "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water." (NKJV)
Jesus quotes scripture here, but his quotation appears nowhere in the Old Testament. What gives?