Cross Reference
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By one medical definition it means, “failure of a gene to produce its usual effect when coupled with another gene that is epistatic toward it”.
epistatic: in the singular, Interaction of a gene and in particular the suppression of the effect of that gene upon another..
These definitions cannot be said to be properly applied if there is no argument concerning the governing factor of why a gene might or might not be in control within the confines of the body which houses them. That brings us to the question of what is the controlling factor of which gene will reign over the other?
From Wikipedia
Hypostasis (philosophy and religion)
The concept of hypostasis as the shared existence of spiritual and corporal entities has been used in a number of religious and intellectual settings. The word hypostasis (Greek ὑπόστασις) means underlying state or underlying substance, and is the fundamental reality that supports all else.
In Neoplatonism the hypostasis of the Soul, Intellect (nous) and the One was addressed by Plotinus.[1] In Christian theology, a hypostasis or person is one of the three elements of the Holy Trinity.[2]
Question: While we can safely assume the Greek is correct, we cannot safely assume that it has been correctly applied to Jesus Christ. I.e., given that the spirit is always subject to the flesh per (1Cor14:32), which gene controlled Jesus? Was it the gene of Adam or of God? If God, then it can be said that He was imposing His will upon Jesus. If the gene of Adam, then we can say Jesus willingly subjected it to the gene of God, given His allegiance to God when tempted by the Devil. Given the ultimate intention of God to have “many sons brought unto glory” (Heb. 2:10), which process do you think would accomplish what He was after from Jesus? And did not up this process, upon its successful completion, make Jesus to be the perfect and now glorified human representation of God. Was this not what happened?
epistatic: in the singular, Interaction of a gene and in particular the suppression of the effect of that gene upon another..
These definitions cannot be said to be properly applied if there is no argument concerning the governing factor of why a gene might or might not be in control within the confines of the body which houses them. That brings us to the question of what is the controlling factor of which gene will reign over the other?
From Wikipedia
Hypostasis (philosophy and religion)
The concept of hypostasis as the shared existence of spiritual and corporal entities has been used in a number of religious and intellectual settings. The word hypostasis (Greek ὑπόστασις) means underlying state or underlying substance, and is the fundamental reality that supports all else.
In Neoplatonism the hypostasis of the Soul, Intellect (nous) and the One was addressed by Plotinus.[1] In Christian theology, a hypostasis or person is one of the three elements of the Holy Trinity.[2]
Question: While we can safely assume the Greek is correct, we cannot safely assume that it has been correctly applied to Jesus Christ. I.e., given that the spirit is always subject to the flesh per (1Cor14:32), which gene controlled Jesus? Was it the gene of Adam or of God? If God, then it can be said that He was imposing His will upon Jesus. If the gene of Adam, then we can say Jesus willingly subjected it to the gene of God, given His allegiance to God when tempted by the Devil. Given the ultimate intention of God to have “many sons brought unto glory” (Heb. 2:10), which process do you think would accomplish what He was after from Jesus? And did not up this process, upon its successful completion, make Jesus to be the perfect and now glorified human representation of God. Was this not what happened?