Re: your timelessness post: :up: "Foreknowledge" a biblical term means, literally, knows beforehand.
Isaiah 46:10 literally says 'declares the end from the beginning.
John 8:58 literally uses both the terms for 'was' regarding a time Abraham walked on the earth, but 'am' when Jesus is applied to the past. Its literal. It can't go any other direction, the 'implication that isn't there' ...is there!
How can that be an assertion? How is it not more than even a mere 'implication.' How can we carry on these conversations if no one will listen? When does it 'get' to make sense like its supposed to do? It looks clear to me,most of us. :idunno: It doesn't look like 'Greek' so why do we always get that accusation? It looks like scripture.
Isaiah 46:10 literally says 'declares the end from the beginning.
John 8:58 literally uses both the terms for 'was' regarding a time Abraham walked on the earth, but 'am' when Jesus is applied to the past. Its literal. It can't go any other direction, the 'implication that isn't there' ...is there!
How can that be an assertion? How is it not more than even a mere 'implication.' How can we carry on these conversations if no one will listen? When does it 'get' to make sense like its supposed to do? It looks clear to me,most of us. :idunno: It doesn't look like 'Greek' so why do we always get that accusation? It looks like scripture.